Provided both x and y are positive,
ln x + ln y = ln (xy) according to the property of logarithm.
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e^(neg. infinity) is 0, taken as a limit.
2007-08-20 06:14:43
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answer #1
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answered by Alam Ko Iyan 7
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no ln(x) + ln(y) = ln(xy)
it is -ln(x) + ln(y) = ln(y/x)
it is bad to write e^(-infinity) = 0, although it is true in a sense.
Properly you should say the limit as x tends to minus infinity of e^x is 0. Or:
lim_{x->-inf} e^x = 0
2007-08-20 06:16:18
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answer #2
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answered by Matthew G 1
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Question 1. NO. ln(x)+ln(y) = ln (x*y)
Question 2. NO. The value approaches zero.
2007-08-20 06:14:43
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answer #3
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answered by cattbarf 7
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because of the fact it leads to paradoxes. assume a million/0=infinity. Now bear in strategies that a million/2*2=a million,a million/.a million*.a million=a million,and a million/x*x=a million. a million/0*0=a million bear in strategies that any element situations 0 equals 0. Infinity*0=0 a million/0*0=infinity*0 a million=0
2016-12-12 07:40:12
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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ya, what the guy say above if to get ln(y/x) its lny-lnx
as got the e^ neg infinity, well... pretty much, but if your doing caluclus, you ur not suppose to just say its infinity, its improper, you have to put lim as c goes to neg infinity..etcetc,
2007-08-20 06:16:48
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answer #5
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answered by jdak34 3
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ln(x)+ln(y)=ln(xy)
For your second question, you must think of it as a limit, e^-infinity only approaches zero.
2007-08-20 06:13:39
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answer #6
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answered by de4th 4
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ln(x) + ln(y) = ln(x.y)
ln(x) - ln(y) = ln(x/y)
a number ^neg. infinity = 0 and "e" is a number
e=2.718
2007-08-20 06:15:33
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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ln(x)+ln(y)=ln(x*y)
ln(x)-ln(y)=ln(x/y)
And yes, lim(exp(x), x --> -infinity)=0
2007-08-20 06:14:50
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answer #8
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answered by Not Eddie Money 3
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