2007-08-19 16:23:25 · 6 answers · asked by ADS 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
The statement is true; there shouldn't be a counterexample.
2007-08-19 16:29:07 · answer #1 · answered by cattbarf 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
All counter examples play on the difference between citizenship and national origins, (or similarly, by using a different meaning of greek (aka frat boy).
That's not the point of a math exercise.
Felix did not supply a counterexample. He's mistaken. He described the obverse - there's a word in logic for that, but I forget what it is.
2007-08-19 23:30:59 · answer #2 · answered by tweedropjes 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You have to give an example of a greek person who is not a european. I do not believe there are any, because greece is a part of the EU.
2007-08-19 23:40:17 · answer #3 · answered by popeye 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If you are looking for a "negation" of the statement, it is:
There exists a Greek who is not a European.
2007-08-19 23:43:27 · answer #4 · answered by scimath001 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not all Europeans are Greeks.
2007-08-19 23:30:30 · answer #5 · answered by felixtc66 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
What if some are born in other country from generations???
2007-08-19 23:31:33 · answer #6 · answered by kayneriend 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋