When writing a proof, always, ALWAYS, always start from precise definitions.
"A sequence of numbers has the limit L if, for any prescribed accuracy, there is a position in the sequence such that all terms after this position approximate L within the prescribed accuracy." (ref. below)
Most "proofs" that you will see use a Greek "e" (epsilon) as the small prescribe value for the prescribed value; the position is called N; numbers that come after the Nth number could be called "a_(N+h)" or "a_m", where m is any number greater than N, or something like that. The key word in the definition is "any".
It could look like:
There exists a convergence limit if (and only if)
For any (non-zero) epsilon, there exists a N such that for all m greater than N, the difference between a_m and L will be less than epsilon.
For the proof, one could proceed by contradiction (try to prove the opposite and end up with nonsense):
Let us suppose that a convergent sequence has two distinct limits L and K.
If L and K are distinct, then their difference is not zero. Let us call the absolute value of this difference "delta".
The convergence test (above) requires that the approximation can be found for "any" epsilon. Then, let us make epsilon = delta divided by 10.
We have made our sequence convergent, therefore there must exist a N, such that for m greater than N, a_m will be within epsilon of L and within epsilon of K. At most, a_n will be exactly half-way between L and K, at a distance of epsilon from each. This means that the distance between L and K can be, at most 2 epsilon.
Yet, we know that this distance is "delta" = 10 epsilon.
By supposing that there could exist 2 distinct limits, we have arrived at a contradiction. Therefore, there cannot be 2 distinct limits.
2007-08-19 16:40:27
·
answer #1
·
answered by Raymond 7
·
1⤊
0⤋
The answers so far are fine as far as they go.
Where you may want to go with this is to be able to
construct an actual proof of this fact, no matter how
logical it may/may not appear.
This is a perfect situation for Proof by Contradiction.
It's to be proven that in the described circumstance, the
sequence converges to a unique limit. ASSUME NOT.
Then there are 2 different real numbers A and B, each of
which is the limit of the sequence. Let L = | A - B | be the
non-zero distance between A and B. Let d = L/2. Then
from the definition of limit, the sequence is eventually
(meaning from some point on) inside the open interval
(A-d , A+d) AND inside the open interval (B-d , B+d) .
Because these open intervals are disjoint (don't overlap)
this cannot happen. Therefore the original assumption
that we have different limits must be FALSE. Therefore
there is only one limit. End of Proof.
A mathematician is expected to be able to put together
such straightforward proofs like this in his/her sleep, with
one hand tied behind his/her back. There are scads of
basic elementary facts about numbers and about sets to
give you practice with this. It is part of the math language.
Mathematicians love this and expect this, but it has a
very practical side. This teaches you to be able to think
something through and say Exactly the reason and the
full reason why something is true. If you wind up being
a mathematician in Industry you will need to be able to
explain stuff to non-mathematicians. If you can give the
reasons well enough to satisfy a fellow-mathematician,
you should be able to satisfy your boss as well. If you
wind up being a mathematician in a teaching setting,
you will want to be able to explain to your students why,
for instance, the Quadratic Formula works. If you are
a mathematician who chooses to branch out into, for
instance, bridge design, you want to be able to think
through a design task thoroughly and deeply and logically
enough so that the bridge will not fall down 40 years later.
Basically, we have to have people in the gene-pool who
can be counted on to think things through clearly and
completely, and present facts clearly and logically. That
is why mathematicians walk the earth.
2007-08-19 16:47:02
·
answer #2
·
answered by Mike_in_Minneapolis 3
·
0⤊
0⤋
if An ? A?0 as n ? ?, the sequence is divergent the fundamental attempt says that the area between x-axis and the curve, from a million to infinity has a tendency to a million because of the fact the sequence a million/n^2 is asymptotical such as the area, the sequence converges (not at a million, considering the fact that sequence and fundamental are diverse) while the sequence is convergent it incredibly is the sequence of the partial sums that converges to a fee that's the sum of the sequence in different phrases we upload phrases and notice what ensue to the sequence of partial sums The undesirable new is that the cut back of partial sums is in many cases impossible to locate it incredibly is why there are a number of tests, which help to determinate convergence or divergence in accordance to the sequence you're examining besides do not subject: I keep in mind that I had many issues as quickly as I studied sequence for the 1st time, the answer is doing many many workouts
2016-10-16 04:39:47
·
answer #3
·
answered by ? 4
·
0⤊
0⤋
The whole point of convergence is that it converges to a unique limit.
Think of the formal process for proving convergence: given epsilon, there exists a delta such that ... etc., etc.
The whole point of this formal process is that the sequence becomes ARBITRARILY CLOSE to a GIVEN, EXPLICIT LIMIT. That being so, it CAN'T get arbitrarily close to some FINITELY DIFFERENT limit. This is not only common sense, but also hard mathematical logic!
Live long and prosper.
2007-08-19 16:17:55
·
answer #4
·
answered by Dr Spock 6
·
0⤊
0⤋
I believe by definition of convergence, a series that converges will converge to some limit.. lets call it L. This L has to be unique because if a series converges it cant converge to two different values. (Otherwise it doesnt converge)
I was never strong with proofs, but I think this logic works.
2007-08-19 16:19:27
·
answer #5
·
answered by revolutionist1985 2
·
0⤊
0⤋
Let lim ai = L and let lim ai = M
0 = lim (ai-ai) = lim ai - lim ai = L - M
so L=M
2007-08-19 16:21:47
·
answer #6
·
answered by Math Nerd 3
·
1⤊
0⤋