ok if i was apologizing i would say "it's ok"
but if i was reffering to a picture i would say "its ok"
am i right?
2007-08-19 04:27:15 · 17 answers · asked by Delia 2 in Education & Reference ➔ Words & Wordplay
No, because if you were referring to the picture, it would also be "it is ok." The only time that you would use "its" is when being possessive, such as saying "The dog cleans its leg" or something like that.
2007-08-19 04:37:01 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
No, with all due respect that is not right.
"It's," with an apostrophe, is a contraction, meaning "it is," as in "Don't tell me it's morning already!"
"Its," without an apostrophe, is a possessive, showing ownership, as in "the horse took the bit in its teeth."
The centuries of confusion surrounding this question undoubtedly arose out of the fact that an apostrophe is also sometimes used to show the possessive, as in "that looks like Harry's toothbrush." However, the apostrophe is never used with the word "its" to show the possessive.
The actress Bette Davis once said that old age ain't for sissies. She might have said the same thing about the English language.
2007-08-19 11:41:35 · answer #2 · answered by Cogito Ergo Sum 5 · 1⤊ 1⤋
No. Both of the phrases you mention use it's as a contraction for "it is", therefore both use the apostrophe. The version without the apostrophe (its) is used to refer to something owned by it (The house was beige, but its door was red). That is why people get confused - because if you used the name of the entity that "it" referred to (The house's door was red), there would, in fact, be an apostrophe.
The way my high school English teacher taught it to us was to say that if it owns something, it doesn't own an apostrophe.
2007-08-19 11:37:13 · answer #3 · answered by neniaf 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
No. An easy way to remember the difference is to insert the word 'is' when you see "it's" or if you aren't sure---and see if the sentence makes sense. So "it is okay" sounds fine in both sentences. Grammarians would add that the two words are used in different ways in the sentence. "Its color is okay", where "its" is a personal adjective, but "it's okay in terms of color", where "it's" is a contraction of "it is" which is, respectively, the subject and predicate of the sentence. Hope I haven't confused you!
2007-08-19 12:30:44 · answer #4 · answered by pasdeclef 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, in the first one you are correct "it's ok" meaning "it is ok"
In the second one you are also trying to say it is ok so it would be the same thing it's not its. Just remember if you can replace what you want to say with it is then you use the apostrophe
2007-08-19 11:32:33 · answer #5 · answered by Greg 7 · 0⤊ 2⤋
No, in both cases you say it's, (with the apostrophe) because you're actually saying "it is ok". It's with the apostrophe is the contraction for the longer form "it is". Its without the apostrophe is possessive form of it, i.e. What is the colour of the stoplight? Its colour is red. (meaning the stoplight's colour is red).
2007-08-19 11:33:57 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
Normally I wouldn't post an answer that's already been given, but in this case the correct answer clearly needs some support.
it's means "it is"
its means "belonging to it"
Normally, an apostrophe is used in the case of possession too (for example the book belonging to Peter is Peter's book). But "belonging to it" is the exception to the rule.
2007-08-19 11:49:49 · answer #7 · answered by SV 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
I would say you are correct.
It's is a contraction for it is or it has.
Its is a possessive pronoun (of it or belonging to it).
A simple test
If you can replace it's in your sentence with it is or it has, then your word is it's; otherwise, your word is its.
Another test
Its is the neutral version of his and her. Try plugging her into your sentence where you think the word its belong. If the sentence still works grammatically (if not logically) then your word is its.
Examples
It's been good to know you. Contraction: it has
It's a bird! It's a plane! Contraction: it is
The dodo bird is known for its inability to fly. Possessive pronoun: its inability = the dodo bird's inability
2007-08-19 11:39:01 · answer #8 · answered by mstoi30 2 · 1⤊ 2⤋
"It's" is always a contraction of "it is". Without the apostrophe, "its" refers to possession. For example, "It's a picture in its frame." It is a picture, and the frame belongs to it.
2007-08-19 11:33:40 · answer #9 · answered by tailjunkie 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋
"It's" is the contraction for "It is".
The second one should still be "it's ok".
If an "it" was an object called an "it", then you would refer to multiple "its" as "its" without the apostrophe.
"It's" is "It is"
"Its" is the plural of "it".
It would be very rare for someone to use the word "its", without the apostrophe.
2007-08-19 11:32:03 · answer #10 · answered by Gary D 7 · 0⤊ 2⤋