2007-08-18 16:38:57 · 16 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Politics
YES... it's interfering with religion
If gays can marry, there is NOTHING that can be done to stop polygamy. Think about it.
If the gov't can't tell 2 people of the same sex that they can't marry, why would anyone think that the gov't has any reason to limit the number of people in a marriage to 2 --- other than for government benefits.
This article says that gay marriage approval will quickly lead to polygamy being legal. ---> http://www.weeklystandard.com/Content/Public/Articles/000/000/002/938xpsxy.asp
2007-08-18 17:03:27 · answer #1 · answered by junglejoe 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Good question. There is a balance between government which serves and government which leads, and there is also an issue about how public policy is interpreted and functions in institutions. A good example in Australia is the 1968 referendum. This was pushed forward by the political will of a very few people who made a lot of noise, yet remains the highest ever 'yes' vote turnout. The will of the people is usually for the status quo, rather than change ~ imagine the consequences of Chamberlain's response to the will of the people for avoiding a fight had been maintained for much longer, pre-WW2? Sometimes governments have to anticipate social trends, on other occasions they have to take leadership. Implementing public policy in institutions is likewise a difficult ask. It's fine, for example, for a poliitian to say 'no child will live in poverty' and people to jump up and down applauding, but what does that mean and how can it become a fact of daily life instead of just words? Programmes have to be put into place, and not everyone will like them. Parents who have children removed from their care and lose pension benefits, for instance, are going to be unhappy, sometimes vocally, and the media may whip their case into a 'political' issue, yet for the policy to work children may have to be removed from abuse and neglect. The further from the centre things are, the more necessary it may be to introduce policies and programmes which are unpopular with people who may have actively opposed the party making policy to begin with. And of course, there is the perpetual tendency of bureaucrats to obfuscate! Of course, optimally, the 'will' of the electorate is done, but the big question is 'in what manner can this best be achieved'. Cheers :-)
2016-05-17 05:16:09 · answer #2 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
...that is the most ridiculous question i have ever seen on yahoo answers.
How can a minority be allowed special rights? They would be getting special treatment if they were allowed to do so.
The rule of law demands that we all be treated equally. If muslim men want to live in a country where Women are treated as chattels - then why not go back to where they came from.
Muslims must learn that they cannot place their out-of-date views/customs on a modern HOST population.
2007-08-18 17:01:04 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
The U.S. government does not prohibit them from having more than 1 wife. This is prohibited by every State not the Federal Government.
2007-08-18 16:55:17 · answer #4 · answered by Charles C 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, because if they allowed Muslim men to have more than one wife, there would be a lot of people converting to become a Muslim.
2007-08-18 16:43:08 · answer #5 · answered by woodchipper890 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋
No, it's not. If Muslim men want to have more than one wife, then they are allowed to do so. They can have the full religious ceremony and be recognized by their respective religious leaders.
However, according to the legal system of THIS country, only one of those wives will be accepted by the legal system.
Marriage by religious ceremony does not have to be accepted by the accompanying legal entity.
2007-08-19 00:04:52 · answer #6 · answered by K9 Guy 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
in Islamic countries not many men can afford having even one wife how about more. only people who are well off manage to have more than one wife. why marry more than one when you can have Mistresses? it is more convenient, cheaper and has less responsibilities! the great thing about this country is that we don't have to have many wives. isn't it the reality that men and women often cheat their spouse these days? you sometimes wonder what is their rationality or reasoning behind this law. seems stupid to have any such a law; isn't it contradictory to our freedom and privacy! the rich men in this country prefer mistresses or it wouldn't be illegal, would it?!
2007-08-18 18:03:40 · answer #7 · answered by macmanf4j 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
No because it is illegal to have more than one spouse for any religion. Mormon men are not legally allowed to have more than one wife so Muslims should not be able to either. It is not discrimination... it is the law.
2007-08-18 16:50:08 · answer #8 · answered by Lindsey G 5 · 1⤊ 2⤋
No Mormons are not permitted to either and there are good sound readons in traditions of religion and in the teachings of the Kama Sutra which explain why more than one man and woman paired are destructive to society at large. Remember how Noah and his family went into the ARk... 2 by 2.
2007-08-18 16:52:14 · answer #9 · answered by Donna Le Oiseau de Feu 3 · 0⤊ 2⤋
No, we all ready dealt with the concept of polygamy through Mormons. There are loopholes. However, every Muslim man I know in the US has only one wife, if they are even married.
2007-08-18 16:42:20 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋