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And when you think of it, Hitler was not a mass murder at the time, the extermination of the Jews didn't begin until 1942, while Stalin had doomed off 30 million from 1934-39. Sure Hitler mistreated the Jews during the 30's, but the high volume extermination didn't begin until after the Wansee Conference in Jan '42.

2007-08-18 16:06:37 · 6 answers · asked by Its not me Its u 7 in Arts & Humanities History

Casimer, you're partially right, i wanted to stimulate some thinking, but you're wrong in me knowing the answer. So far, i think you've the best response.

2007-08-18 17:37:57 · update #1

6 answers

Casimiir2121 answered everything that I would have said for this question. One thing I will disagree with though is Churchill was prepared to deal with Germany to the end, in fact the Nazis gave up on an invasion of Britain after realizing the impossibility of transporting enough troops across the channel without having them sunk by the Royal Navy and the RAF. I am currently reading Churchills series of books (the second world war) and have learned a lot of the mentally of the allies (not usa) at this point. They would not have dared make russia an enemy at this point in the war as churchills plan was to keep every ally that they had. As well Russia as a whole had no real means of attacking either france or britain due to a lack of a real navy and the means of deployment required, they were of no threat either and could open up a second front against the germans and did in the end drag over half of the whole nazi might in a second front away from britain and the allies. Churchill sent many messages to the russians in 1940 concerning an allegiance against the germans but stalin was biding his time and building up his army and not until the surprize attack in 41 of operation barbarossa by hitler invading russia did stalin join the battle against the germans. Thank god those two did not become allies or the war would have gone on for decades after or we would have all been dead. As well before hitler made everyone fight in ww11 no one wanted another war and everyone in the free world was still suffering the effects of the economic depression and quite unable politically or financially at that point to engage an enemy like russia.
And yes Stalin was as terrible as hitler, his ideals were similair and there political structures were similair. In fact it is questionable whether the average russian peasant would have been better off as a german prisoner or a russian soldier in the start of the war. In fact Russian troops suffered more then 4 to one casualty rates when engaged with the germans due to lack of training, terrible leadership, and the complete lack of respect for life from there leaders.

2007-08-18 18:06:43 · answer #1 · answered by cndtroops1 3 · 0 0

I am fairly sure you have a good answer to your question, and are asking it for sake of stimulation but let me give it a try.
To start off, you point to some underlying issues that bring many checks as to why ww2 was fought in the first place in the alliance manner that it did.

WW1 is the first answer as to why the two allies declared war on Germany only and not USSR. Russia had been an ally in the first war, though it left in the 4th quarter, and the allies still did not beat Germany off French soil. It was certainly not going to push Stalin into Hitler's hand now and face certain defeat. The guarantee to Poland was a joke to begin with and its only purpose was to set a limit to how far Germany could go. Neither ally had any way of defending Poland, let alone themselves, so it was more a reason to have a cassus belli on Germany once it attacked Poland. The allies, postering aside, had no intention of fighting an aggressive war with its main enemy Germany so it was for sure not going to take both of them on. Poland was as much an excuse to fight Germany as Belgium was to the British two decades before. Poland was tactically irrelevent and therefore so was the USSR's invasion of it.

The second point, the murder of innocents, as a reason to go to war is a mute point since at Yalta, the allies gave away half the continent to a man arguably more brutal than Hitler himself.

GB and France didn't declare war on the USSR because they knew that they were not even ready to declare war on Germany. Churchill was always convinced that big brother America would come save the day if things were really going bad and the French did not really have any choice about Germany, it was fight them again and lose or don't fight and accept there superiority. Both there actions once they declared war showed how much they really had no will to do what they postered they would. They might have even got the job done early on but they chose to wait behind their walls again so the Germans could move around them.

Truth to be told, neither had any good solutions to dealing with Germany and the declaration after the German-Soviet invasion of Poland just seemed like as good as a time as any to get beat.

2007-08-18 17:30:32 · answer #2 · answered by casimir2121 5 · 1 0

Any knowledge of Stalin's brutality was generally limited to within the USSR, and certainly had not been proved to anyone in the west. So that wasn't really a factor yet. If I remember the time line right, Russia waited just long enough to invade Poland that France and England had already declared war on Germany. And Stalin claimed he was only acting in self defense to create a buffer between German territory and Russian home soil. Certainly that could have been a valid point, considering Hitler's obvious aggression.

But really the single biggest reason was fear. The western nations were so afraid of another war with Germany they weren't willing to risk antagonizing the Russians. Imagine if the Germans and Russians had become allies long enough to deal with France and England. That would have changed things quite a bit, don't you think?

2007-08-18 17:14:50 · answer #3 · answered by rohak1212 7 · 1 0

Because the Nazis broke treties with Britain and France and the Soviets didn't do anything to provoke the Brits and the French to wage war against each other.

2007-08-18 16:24:45 · answer #4 · answered by The Glove 4 · 1 0

All excellent points.

I think it comes down to the British and French are bigotted against the Germans more than the Russians.

2007-08-18 16:15:54 · answer #5 · answered by special-chemical-x 6 · 0 0

i'm fairly specific you have a great answer on your question, and are asking it for sake of stimulation yet enable me supply it a attempt. to start up, you factor to a pair underlying themes that convey many exams as to why ww2 replaced into fought in the 1st place in the alliance way that it did. WW1 is the 1st answer as to why the two allies declared conflict on Germany purely and not u.s.. Russia have been an best pal in the 1st conflict, yet it left in the 4th quarter, and the allies nevertheless did not beat Germany off French soil. It replaced into via no skill going to push Stalin into Hitler's hand now and face specific defeat. The assure to Poland replaced right into a shaggy dog tale to start with and its purely objective replaced into to set a shrink to how a techniques Germany could desire to pass. Neither best pal had any way of shielding Poland, not to point themselves, so it replaced into extra a reason to have a cassus belli on Germany as quickly because it attacked Poland. The allies, postering aside, had no objective of scuffling with an aggressive conflict with its significant enemy Germany so it replaced into for specific unlikely to take the two one in all them on. Poland replaced into as plenty an excuse to combat Germany as Belgium replaced into to the British 2 many years earlier. Poland replaced into tactically irrelevent and as a result so replaced into the U.S.'s invasion of it. the 2d factor, the homicide of innocents, as a reason to pass to conflict is a mute factor with the aid of fact that at Yalta, the allies gave away 0.5 the continent to a guy arguably extra brutal than Hitler himself. GB and France did not declare conflict on the U.S. with the aid of fact they knew that they weren't even waiting to declare conflict on Germany. Churchill replaced into continuously confident that vast brother u.s. could come save the day if issues have been fairly going undesirable and the French did not fairly have any determination approximately Germany, it replaced into combat them lower back and lose or do not combat and settle for there superiority. the two there strikes whilst they declared conflict confirmed how plenty they actually had no will to do what they postered they could. they could have even have been given the job completed early on yet they chosen to attend at the back of their partitions lower back so the Germans could desire to pass around them. reality to be pronounced, neither had any good recommendations to coping with Germany and the statement after the German-Soviet invasion of Poland merely appeared like surprisingly much as good as a time as any to get beat.

2016-10-16 02:26:48 · answer #6 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

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