2007-08-17 07:16:05 · 6 answers · asked by Scotty 3 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
About 18%.
The decline from a to b is expressed as: (a - b)/a, and as a percentage it's 100*(a-b)/a.
100 * (1,832,800 - 1,504,500) / 1,832800 =
17.91
2007-08-17 07:20:54 · answer #1 · answered by McFate 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1504500/1832800 = .821, so 1 - .821 = .179 = 17.9% decline from 1997 to 2006. Note that this is a decline over nine years, not an annual measure.
2007-08-17 07:20:41 · answer #2 · answered by John V 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Decline = 1,832,800 - 1,504,500 = 328,300
Percent decline from 1,832,800 = 328,300 / 1,832,300 = 17.9% (0.0179)
Note: you could also divide 1,504,500 / 1,832,800 = 0.8209
The decline from 100% is 1.0000 - 0.8209 = 0.179 or 17.9%
2007-08-17 07:31:21 · answer #3 · answered by skipper 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
to find the percent change of anything you take the new value and subtract the old value then divide that answer by the new value. So for your case it would be
(1504500-1832800)/1832800 giving you about -17.9%
2007-08-17 07:22:04 · answer #4 · answered by Matt C 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
18%
2007-08-17 07:23:53 · answer #5 · answered by tankgirl97 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
17.91% in 9 years.
2007-08-17 07:27:38 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋