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16 answers

If a husband does not have physical relationship with his wife on account of physical infirmity or disability or on any other account, the wife can file case of unilateral divorce against her husband. The court then orders a medical examination of the husband and if the wife's contention in her divorce plea is proved to be true, she is granted a divorce. If for some reason the husband willingly abstains from sex, even though he is able to perform intercourse, the wife is granted a divorce in such cases as well. But here the proceedings might be a little lengthier.
Applying for a divorce is by far the best option in cases as mentioned in your question. By choosing adultery, the wife not only stands to bring disrepute on herself but also queers the pitch for herself if she wants to apply for a divorce. The law in that case, might look at her side of the problem less sympathetically. Besides, the husband has the option to file charges of adultery against her.
Finally, it boils down to the wife's own perspective in the matter. Shri Ramkrishna Paramhamsa, the great saint of Bengal and worshipper of of Goddess Kali at Dakshineswar, didn't have any physical relationship with his consort Sarada Devi. He worshipped her as a human manifestation of Maa (Mother Kali). Sarada Devi also accepted Ramkrishna Dev as her true husband, with all sincerity and fervour. But all that is in the realms of saintlihood and may not be appropriate in the lives of ordinary mortals.

2007-08-17 05:26:30 · answer #1 · answered by Modest 6 · 0 0

She can do anything she wants, but no, it is not the right thing to do and even that is no reason to cheat. However, if he refuses to touch her, then he should expect her to cheat on him if she really needs it like men say they do. I am one of the strange ones, I would not ever cheat and if the need came, which it probably wouldnt, then I would just have to deal with it. There is much more to a relationship than sex. The thing with this situation though is that it is odd that a man doesnt want sex from his wife. There is a reasoning behind that whether it be that he has a medical condition, is impotent, cannot function, or if he has someone else. Most of the time it is someone else if he doesnt or cant give her a reason for not wanting to touch her. Sure, the spice of the relationship could die out, but he would still get the urge at least once a week. I would recommend her getting to the bottom of the reason before doing anything though.

2007-08-16 17:46:53 · answer #2 · answered by Angelic Valentine 6 · 0 1

This matter is very subjective and needs to be sorted based on actual marriage conditions.
In marriage, there is unwritten consent that, you'll not have sex with any other person than your partner. It also mean that your partner should satisfy your physical needs.
Now what should happen if anyone breaks rules, cannot be advised by any third party.
Say for ex if husband enjoys sex outside marriage with the consent of his wife, then others have no say in this.
But it is important to analyse the reasons behind why the husband is not touching wife.
If all reasons are in favour of wife, then wife becomes elgible to have relations outside marriage. However, she still is not eligible to break emotional or marital bondage with him.

2007-08-17 10:19:44 · answer #3 · answered by Jim C 2 · 0 0

Yes,even husband touches his wife,she can have sex with other man,provided if there is love between them...

2007-08-17 02:49:56 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

First try to find out the grievances and remove it. Having sex with other Man may ruin her life. If no result found then she may go for divorce and then have 2 nd marriage.

2007-08-17 01:29:19 · answer #5 · answered by rajan sharma 2 · 0 0

Yes. Because he cannot deprive sex to his wife.
This is one of the legal rights to both husband and wife.

2007-08-17 09:09:06 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

This gives a good ground to the wife to seek divorce from her husband as this amount to mental cruelty. She has legal right to seek divorce & get remarried to a suitable man who can provide her with love she has been deprived by her first husband & consummate their marital life in a proper manner. Indulging in extra marital sex is bad from legal, moral as well medical point of view.

2007-08-17 03:59:50 · answer #7 · answered by vijay m Indian Lawyer 7 · 4 1

Yes, if the marriage is not consummate i.e. u are a virgin inspite of the marriage. The marriage can be made null and void, by appealing to the appropriate court.

2007-08-17 06:21:29 · answer #8 · answered by wizard of the East 7 · 0 0

No, because there are several issues involved from criminal offence of adultry for the other person, to chances of scandal for lady, but what for he married her in the first place.

2007-08-17 10:12:33 · answer #9 · answered by BDG 4 · 0 0

Even if he touches her; she can have sex with others. There is no big deal in this.

2007-08-17 13:21:55 · answer #10 · answered by Ss 2 · 0 0

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