No, there was no state called "palestine" there, ever, and when modern Israel was established, it was simply taken from part of the British protectorate of TransJordan.
The Jews had inhabited that land millenia ago, creating the ancient state of Israel, and founding the city of Jerusalem. So the Jews have been living there for well over 2000 years. It was invaded by the Romans and other conquerers, then by the Muslim hordes, etc. But there remained a significant Jewish population there throughout - in fact a Jewish majority population in many of the towns & cities.
They weren't magically brought there from outside - they were always there.
They didn't slaughter any "palestinians" (until the 1960's, even the "palestinians" called themselves "Jordanians"!) to create Israel. History does show that the Arab Muslims had used terrorism against Jews long before 1948, and had conducted some slaughters against Jews. And, it is also true there was some retaliation against the Muslim Jordanians. But that had nothing to do with the establishment of Israel.
And after Israel was established, the armies of 5 Arab nations immediately attacked, and were repulsed. Many of the "palestinians" heeded the Arab armies' calls to get out of their way so they could push the Jews into the sea. But that didn't happen, and many of the "palestinians" didn't come back.
At the same time, almost 1,000,000 Jews were expelled from Arab lands, where many had dwelt for centuries or millenia, often with only the clothes on their backs. Israel welcomed these Jews. Why did the Arab nations never welcome their "palestinian" brothers? Why are some STILL in refuge camps, 60 years later? Why are Arabs so lacking in grace, gratitude and charity they won't accept the "palestinians" into their countries?
Your profound ignorance of the history of modern day Israel is disturbing, to say the least.
2007-08-16 05:10:19
·
answer #1
·
answered by Anonymous
·
2⤊
0⤋
Let us try to figure out the a more precise definition of "Palestinian land".
It could mean one of the following:
1) An independant state belonging to Palestinian Arabs.
2) Specific land owned by specific owners who happen to be Palestinian Arabs.
As for #1- There was never an independant state of Palestine. Thus, if that is what you mean by "Palestinian land" then there was never such a thing.
As for #2 - That would narrowly apply to privately owned land which does not account for most land in any country or territory. That being the case, then although there was privately owned Arab land there was also privately owned Jewish land as well. And you'd be hard pressed to argue that Jews unlawfully took that. And when people say "Palestinian land" they usually do not mean this second definition.
Therefore, to answer your question: No. The creation of the state of Israel does not imply that THEY (who is they?) took Palestinian land considering that such a concept did not exist.
As is the case, I do not wonder why the Arabs do not recognize Israel. I know that blame for their failure to do so lies with THEM, not Israel.
2007-08-16 12:04:24
·
answer #2
·
answered by BMCR 7
·
1⤊
0⤋
The Jews lived there thousands of years ago, then they were conquered and scattered. Some of them moved to the US, where they were terrorized by the KKK. Some of them moved to Russia, where they were imprisoned for their religious beliefs. Some of them moved to Germany, where they were largely exterminated. Then once they'd had enough, they moved back to the place that was originally their home.
It's understandable that the people who lived there pre-1948 are mad about the present situation. But they have never presented a realistic alternative. Where else do they think the Jews should go? Israel is the only place in the entire world where they're safe. And it's not like the Jews are asking for an excessive amount of space. Israel is a tiny country. Muslim Arabs have several enormous countries to which they can move.
Also note that when the Jews moved back to Israel, they did it in a peaceful way.
2007-08-16 06:20:44
·
answer #3
·
answered by Anonymous
·
1⤊
0⤋
That's not quite how it happened, portions of the land were owned by Britain, gained through imperialistic means (which I believe were violent in this case). Many Jews already legally owned land in the area that they purchased. Britain turned the land over to Israel by a UN mandate to create Israel. There were Palestinians in the Israeli territory, they were allowed to stay but most didn't because they didn't like their treatment. Many were moved out too. Then there was the 6 day war, where Israel seized even more land as a 'buffer' which it still has yet to return.
2007-08-16 04:38:14
·
answer #4
·
answered by Pfo 7
·
0⤊
2⤋
I just love it when people ask a question and immediately answer it themselves, just hoping to get support for their answer. for the benefit of those of you who aren't so biased, here's a little history:
Jews had lived on that land long before the state of Israel, for centuries. besides, the Israeli "settlers", who started to arrive here long before 1948 (a the end of the 19th century in fact) did buy some lands from the Arabs, but they mostly settled places which were considered uninhabitable until then, like swamp areas.
by 1948, when the state of Israel was declared, no Arab was in any way forcefully removed from his home.
shortly prior to the declaration, the local Arab leaders, pushed by the leaders of nearby Arab states, issued a demand for all of the land of Palestine, including those which were sold by them, and started a war against Israel. those leaders promised a quick victory against the young and, as they believed, defenseless state of Israel, and actually urged the local Arab population to evacuate to make it easier for the Arab "tidal wave" to sweep through the land, without having to tell friends from foes.
a major part of the population did follow that advice. the plan failed, though, since the Arabs lost that war - and that, in short, are the causes of today's situation, with many Arabs still living in refugee camps, and many Arab leaders still promising them all of the land of Israel.
2007-08-16 19:18:22
·
answer #5
·
answered by vic l 2
·
1⤊
0⤋
There were many jews living in the area before 1948, and a lot of jewish people had bought pand in this area in hope of a jewish stae being formed. But after 1948 the jew's forceably took land off of the palestinians and have refused to give them there land back/
You are right my man
Long live palestine!
2007-08-17 04:19:32
·
answer #6
·
answered by Shanahan 4
·
0⤊
3⤋
The Israelis have been there for thousands of years, silly! They just officially became a state in 1948. I'm sure there are both types of people that have live there in that land and both are claiming it's theirs. Tough situation to be in, for sure.
2007-08-16 04:39:32
·
answer #7
·
answered by Sunshine 5
·
2⤊
1⤋
No, there was no state or people called "palestine" this name was created by the ARABS since 1948
2007-08-16 21:22:49
·
answer #8
·
answered by Anonymous
·
1⤊
0⤋
No. It means that Israel as a Country was "Formalized" in 1948. They (Jews) had been there all along.
2007-08-16 05:21:57
·
answer #9
·
answered by Anonymous
·
2⤊
1⤋
No one was slaughtered. The land was mostly uninhabited because the Arabs didn't irrigate it or develop it. It wasn't until the Israelis turned it into a flourishing country that the Arabs wanted it.
The land was diviided between Israel and Jordan. Why doesn't anyone demand that Jordan return it?
2007-08-16 04:40:58
·
answer #10
·
answered by notyou311 7
·
1⤊
2⤋