2007-08-16 01:27:55 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Other - Society & Culture
It would not be the same cake. You could have one of your cakes and eat the other one, but that's not the same thing. IMO, the phrase refers to a fancy decorated cake which people often exclaim is "too pretty to cut." They always do, however, after admiring the confectioner's art for a suitable period of time.
2007-08-16 01:43:23 · answer #1 · answered by auntb93 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
If you buy two cakes and eat one, then technically you no longer have the cake that you ate so therefore you can't respond with I have my cakes and ate it too.You could say I had my cakes but ate one.But it is not possible to have one's cakes and eat one too.
My husband said you can have your cake and eat it too, if you have one cake and eat the other one.
That doesn't make sense to me.
Let's try that again, if you buy two cakes couldn't you have
a cake and................oh, forget it,let's have some CAKE.
2007-08-16 08:48:14 · answer #2 · answered by Vermillion 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
if i buy a cake [or 2, or 3...], i am not going to be interested in just 'having' it - whats the point in owning a cake and NOT eating it?!
2007-08-16 08:36:17 · answer #3 · answered by hedgewitch 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Good question. Ask Marie Antionette.
2007-08-16 08:36:46 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋