My family is basically 50/50 between girls and boys.
My husband's family is mostly females.
Does any of this matter is determinating another girl for us??
2007-08-14 04:34:46 · 13 answers · asked by Forever Brooklyn 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Biology
It depends on the sperm your husband is producing, but it is still generally a 50/50 chance that your next child will be a girl.
Its because all of your eggs will have an X chromosome, and your husbands sperm will have either an X or a Y chromosome. If a child is XX, it's a girl, if it's XY, its a boy.
2007-08-14 04:39:12 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
Short answer: No.
Long answer: It's likely to be 50/50. However, if your husband is producing an excess of Y sperm, then you're more likely to produce a boy. If your husband was producing more X sperm, then girls are more likely. The only way to know for sure is to find a way to know the ratio of X and Y sperm your husband has.
Just in case you're interested, Henry VIII (eighth) may have had an excess of X sperm which would account for all the daughters he produced.
2007-08-14 11:36:59 · answer #2 · answered by alienwhoseshiplandedonearth 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The sperm determines the gender of the child. I don't think your family has anything to do with it. You basically have a 50/50 chance. There really is no other way to factor in anything else. Good luck!!!
2007-08-14 04:39:54 · answer #3 · answered by aerofare 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. Statistically, the odds are just under 50% tht the next child will be a girl (more boys than girls are born). There are some months in which fortune seems to favor specific genders. A little Googling should turn up some help there.
2007-08-14 04:39:13 · answer #4 · answered by lfh1213 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
by looking at your family jeans is a good start. My family is 50/50 always 1 boy first then the girl. if you have had 3 boys and one girl how is the pattern, was it all boys then your girl or was it mixed that's another way to tell. your chance is good but there is never a real way to tell how.
2007-08-14 04:43:36 · answer #5 · answered by ? 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Nope, it's generally always 50/50 (or 51/49 or something very close to 50/50). Past performance is not indicative of future results.
2007-08-14 04:37:20 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
Nope regardless of any fact it is always 50:50 chance. Its because females have the XX chromosome and the males have the XY chromosome.
2007-08-14 06:12:42 · answer #7 · answered by Emad 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The father alone determines the sex of the child.
He provides either an X or Y chromosome
2007-08-14 04:38:42 · answer #8 · answered by rosie recipe 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
None of that matters. What matters is whether the sperm that fertilizes the egg is X or Y.
2007-08-14 04:39:35 · answer #9 · answered by claudiacake 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Your husband's sperm determines the gender of the child.
2007-08-14 04:38:25 · answer #10 · answered by kja63 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋