its indeterminate. its neither infinite nor zero.
2007-08-14 02:42:03
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answer #1
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answered by quigonjan 3
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Any number 'n' is actually n / 1. When we say 5 it is 5/1, 1/8 is 0.125 /1 and so on.
0 is 0/1.
Division by zero is not defined. That is we cannot perform that operation.
Not only 0/0, even 1/0 is also not defined. When we say 1/0 is infinity, we don't give the exact meaning of zero in the numerator. But we think of a number very close to zero and we say that as denominator tends to zero the number tends to infinity. If it is exactly equal to zero then the number is not defined.
2007-08-14 10:54:29
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answer #2
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answered by Pearlsawme 7
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As a denominator approaches zero, the value of the fraction increases exponentially. Given this, the total value approaches infinity as it approaches zero. By that logic, any number over zero would have to equal infinity.
Think of it this way, 1/0.5 would be the same as saying 1 pie is half a unit, requiring 2 pies for a complete set. 1/.01 is the equivalent of 100 pies totaling a set. 1/(1x10^-100) is, well, you get the picture. In other words, at 0 denominator, an infinite amount of pies are required to complete the set.
This kind of concept is difficult for most people to accept because infinity follows its own rules. it exists in only three states, positive, negative, or nil. The number over the zero becomes relevant to the value only to determine positive, negative, or zero.
So to answer the question, the value would be zero, because an empty set is always an empty set, regardless of the size of the set.
2007-08-14 10:07:06
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answer #3
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answered by most important person you know 3
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There are no parts, and you have all zero of them. Since you have all of the parts, that's 100%; since you have zero parts, that's 0%.
Dividing any other number by zero results in a number approaching infinity, but dividing zero by zero is simply a meaningless expression.
2007-08-14 09:44:11
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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lets assume we have x/x and slowly replace the parts.
x/x=1 is true
0/x=0 is true
x/0=undefined is true
so 0/0=1,0,undefined all at the same time must be true
2007-08-14 15:02:26
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answer #5
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answered by Nicolas C 3
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Indeterminate. You need to take the limit of the ratio of two functions which each approach zero in the given limit to determine have specific definable value.
2007-08-14 10:12:51
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answer #6
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answered by Dr. R 7
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it's indeterminate.
read here....
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/0/0
**** update *****
some schmuck gave me a thumbs down. why? this answer is correct and has been since the early days of calculus. 1700 AD? 300+ years ago? I even gave you a quick reference. did you read it? here are more references...
http://mathworld.wolfram.com/Indeterminate.html
http://www.m-w.com/cgi-bin/dictionary?indeterminate
http://www.tpub.com/math2/36.htm
http://www.sosmath.com/calculus/indforms/otherquotient/otherquotient.html
http://planetmath.org/encyclopedia/IndeterminateValue.html
etc.
I have a degree in chemical engineering. have been through and TA'd calculus, etc. this is pretty basic stuff. 0/0 is an indeterminate equation.
2007-08-14 10:18:41
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answer #7
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answered by Dr W 7
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And yet any number divided by itself is one.
x/x=1 Period.
.00000000001/.00000000001=1
-.00000000001/-.000000000001=1
From infinity to minus infinity for a limit, the value is always one. If you connect the point you know it is one.
So you can infer that it is one, or iterate that it is one, but you cannot define it as one.
2007-08-14 16:59:32
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answer #8
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answered by muddypuppyuk 5
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Zero.
2007-08-14 09:38:30
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answer #9
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answered by J.SWAMY I ఇ జ స్వామి 7
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ANY NUMBER (including zero) divided by zero is undefined.
.
2007-08-14 09:37:09
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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You cant divide by zero. You question cant be answered.
2007-08-14 09:36:47
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answer #11
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answered by Mike 6
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