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2007-08-13 12:19:04 · 5 answers · asked by melissa 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

5 answers

e^(1 + lnx)

we know that ln(e) = 1

e^(ln(e) + ln(x) )

product rule: ln a + ln b = ln (ab)

e^(ln(e*x))

e^(ln x) = x

so the answer is e*x

2007-08-13 12:26:41 · answer #1 · answered by      7 · 0 0

An alternate method is to realize that adding exponents is just combining a series of values which have been multiplied, e.g.

2^2 * 2^3 = 2(2+3) = 2^5 = 32

So, you can work in reverse for your question:

e^(1 + lnx) = e^1 * e^lnx = e*x (since with e^lnx the e and ln cancel to leave x)

2007-08-13 12:32:31 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

e^(1 + lnx) = e^1 · e^(lnx) = e*x

Saludos.

2007-08-13 14:14:45 · answer #3 · answered by lou h 7 · 0 0

e^ needed -lnx would desire to be written as e^(needed -ln(x) dx) =e^(-needed ln(x) dx) Now, by using factors, needed (lnx)dx = xln(x)-x+C_1, the situation C_1 is the consistent of integration. So e^(-needed ln(x) dx) = e^(-xln(x)-x+C_1)=e^(-xln(x))*e^(-x)*e^C... =C_2x^(-x)*e^(-x), the situation C_2=e^C_1 is a non-0 consistent, and e^(-xln(x))=x^(-x). suited variety is C_2(xe)^(-x).

2016-12-11 19:01:52 · answer #4 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

e^(1+ln x) = e*e^(ln x) = e*x.

2007-08-13 12:44:36 · answer #5 · answered by steiner1745 7 · 0 0

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