women smell good to me
men smell funny to me
that makes it instinct
2007-08-13 09:41:58
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answer #1
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answered by Kariana S 3
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First, lets take apart the question for cultural analysis:
The idea of a binary sex system (one consisting of only two sexes) is cultural. There are only two sexes, there are more than two sexes, there are as many sexes as there are people, there is only one sex. These are all equally valid ways of interpreting the human body medically, scientifically, and socially. Depending one one's culture, their sciences, and beliefs will likely support one or more of these ideas within a cultural context including scientific and medical bias.
"Natural" if something occurs in nature, it is natural. However, if a scientist decides to, within a cultural context label something 'deviant' from the norms in that culture, then the deviance may be labeled unnatural (what is considered 'deviant' or 'abnormal' changes over time and from culture to culture.)
"Choice" there is more than one kind of choice. Someone could be born not exhibiting a behavior, over time they may begin to exhibit that behavior without it being an intellectual choice, it does not make it not natural, it may make it non congenital (existing from birth) and again later in life they may not exhibit those behaviors.
Now, from my own culture, I see sex as being a different sex for each person, therefor the notion of "opposites" would not be a sensical sex concept within my culture, (but it may be sensical in other cultures).
Based on my cultural reasonings, and the wordign of the question, no, i do not believe that attraction for the opposite sex is a natural instict as sexes are not opposite and therefore there could be no natural attraction for something that does not exist, save if it were an imaginary attraction.
As for homosexuality, it rests on the cultural idea that two sexes can be the same.... this is also a statement that does not make sense for me unless I take on a cultural perspective that is not my own.
Could some people be attracted to some sexes and not others? Absolutely. ^_^
2007-08-13 18:15:01
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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"Instinct" is not the comprehensive word/concept to explain attraction to opposite sex.
In the human kind sex is made of two components : instinct and brain (search of pleasure where it sits)
There is no rule. Homosexuality is as natural as heterosexuality, but rarest.
Homosexuality flowered under strict matrimonial regimes or android regimes where either man or woman ruled ( Amazons and Romans).
Let's say it is normal to be hetero, but natural to be homo... as long as sexual fulfillemnt is the final target.
With homosexuality, there is the refinement of the pleasure for the pleasure (epicurian behavior), while "normal" sexuality has a purpose : reproduction (with pleasure or not) of the race.
2007-08-13 17:09:38
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answer #3
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answered by Sweet Dragon 5
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It's very natural for those of us that are gay to be attracted to the same sex. I prefer to think of it as a genetic anomaly vs. genetic disorder as in the previous answer. Anomaly is something that deviates from the norm or from expectations. It's different but not a disorder or disease or something that keeps you from living a full productive life.
2007-08-13 16:38:28
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answer #4
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answered by momaab 4
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Natural instinct since birth and not a choice.
2007-08-13 17:10:51
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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Exactly! It's like asking some one when they chose to be gay, asking a staight person when they decided when they were straight.
2007-08-13 17:00:40
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answer #6
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answered by ♥Trixie McBimbo♥ 3
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ok... youve made your point. we all know that being gay is not a choice. no one can change the minds of the fools who believe it is.
why beat a dead horse?
2007-08-13 16:40:19
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answer #7
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answered by sweetblueyes 5
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who let the dogs out''
2007-08-13 18:40:06
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answer #8
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answered by kay kay 7
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I think it's a natural instint. For gays, it's a genetic disorder.
2007-08-13 16:28:13
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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