I owned my house for many years before I met my partner. Legally everything is in my name solely, infact there is no connection to him whatsoever. We are to be married soon, and while I don't plan on getting a divorce i was wondering if it was possible for him to claim a part of this property if we did divorce? (We also have another property that we bought together 50/50 in both names).
2007-08-13 05:43:41 · 4 answers · asked by Stiffler 6 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
I'm in Australia.
2007-08-13 05:57:20 · update #1
I believe if it was property you owned b4 the marriage that he doesn't have any rights to it unless you get the title changed to both names.
2007-08-13 05:50:54 · answer #1 · answered by Kim B 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
What state?
2007-08-13 05:47:18 · answer #2 · answered by Michael C 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If you get married without a prenuptial agreement, all property becomes joint and common, which means, yes, he can.
Get the prenup. If he won't sign it, don't trust him and DON'T marry him.
2007-08-13 05:50:05 · answer #3 · answered by Ryan M 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yep, better get a prenup
2007-08-13 05:47:36 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋