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like who were the first group of people to be allowed to vote in the United States

2007-08-12 10:52:53 · 11 answers · asked by fashionista.2009 3 in Politics & Government Elections

11 answers

As far as the Constitution goes:

Citizens (Article I, Article IV)
Males over 21, except felons (14th Amendment)
Citizens regardless of race (15th Amendment)
Citizens regardless of gender (19th Amendment)
Citizens regardless of age > 18 (26th Amendment)

In fact, the 14th Amendment is the first time gender is mentioned at all in the voting requirements.

2007-08-12 10:59:50 · answer #1 · answered by coragryph 7 · 4 0

Overall, nationally, it was white men who were property owners, and originally, in the beginning where we're talking about local votes in the colonies, free black male landowners could vote in local elections in some of the colonies (before there was such rampant slavery here, which ended the free black male landowner, and yes, they existed in the early days of the colonies, some even had indentured servants). Now in the far western territories, women were often allowed to vote in local and state elections because there just weren't that many people. (Women also often owned land there, too). But nationally, after white male landowners came all white males, then black males (although Jim Crow laws often demanded they own property, which wasn't actually required to vote in national elections). Women, both white and black, came last. Obviously, last but not least. And since the 70s, we have to include teenagers of in this group, as well. Not sure if that counts.... :-)

2007-08-12 12:16:05 · answer #2 · answered by patriotgal27 2 · 0 0

White, male landowners originally. Then universal male suffrage came in the first half of the 19th Century. De jure, it was applied to all men with the passage of the 15th Amendment, but as we know, that wasn't exactly the case, with blacks and poor whites being often denied access to the polls. Also important to note is that often in this era one had different numbers of votes based on their social class; a manager may have 500 votes while a factory grunt just one. That changed during the progressive era in the early 20th Century with the adoption of the one man, one vote policy. Women were granted the franchise with the passage of the 19th Amendment in 1920, and blacks (and other minorities) were more greatly secured their voting rights with the Voting Rights Act of 1965.

2007-08-12 11:02:57 · answer #3 · answered by ADCS 2 · 0 1

The nation began with voting rights for white male land owners only. In 1776, those barred from voting included Catholics, Jews, and Quakers, as well as women, and slaves.

2007-08-12 11:01:26 · answer #4 · answered by mick t 5 · 1 0

White men, that owned property.
All White Men
All men (black and white)
Women.
Felons will be next.

Women were allowed to run for office before they had the right to vote.

2007-08-12 10:59:41 · answer #5 · answered by crknapp79 5 · 4 1

property owning white men, then white men, then not southerners(men from the suceeding states), then black men, then southerners who took an oath, then women, then american-indians(citizenship in 1927), then people between 18 and 21.

2007-08-12 10:59:45 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 3 0

White men who were property owners were first, Then all White men, then Black men, then Women

2007-08-12 10:57:30 · answer #7 · answered by Becky P 3 · 5 1

Male landowners were first, then all white males, then men of color & then women were the last.

2007-08-12 12:31:03 · answer #8 · answered by mstrywmn 7 · 0 0

white men

2007-08-12 10:56:11 · answer #9 · answered by cheeka2162 3 · 1 0

White men, black men, women.

2007-08-12 10:57:31 · answer #10 · answered by pepper 7 · 2 1

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