According to International Maritime Law, States that have a maritime coastline each have a buffer zone around their respective countries which allows them to claim any island (inhabited or uninhabited) and any thing else which lies in that buffer. For example, if the buffer zone was let's say 50 miles, this means that any island that is within 50 miles of the Brazilian coastline is the property of the Brazilian government. What I want to know is what exactly is the buffer zones of states according to international law.
Does anybody know what is the exact number of miles or kilometres that make up maritime buffer zones according to international law?
2007-08-12 10:00:09 · 8 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ International Organizations
Don't know that, but it is interesting that while the United States has a 3 mile limit and can arrest people out that far for breaking US laws, the state of Texas can arrest people for breaking Texas laws 12 miles out at sea. When Texas was an independent country they had a 12 mile limit, which they did not give up when they joined the US.
2007-08-12 10:13:50 · answer #1 · answered by Taganan 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It was three miles which was the maximum range of a cannon. Since many countries now claim more it depends how strong they are. The navigation of the English Channel is governed by international treaty. The Common market with the collusion of the British Government forces people to pay tax on goods purchased outside territorial waters. Logical you say but have you noticed that if politicians use the words fairer logical equitable it always costs us money
2007-08-14 04:52:36 · answer #2 · answered by Scouse 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
200 miles from the coastline of a country is the buffer zone where the enjoyment of the rights over it is exclusive to the said country.
2007-08-15 18:35:53 · answer #3 · answered by FRAGINAL, JTM 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
As best as I can tell, there is no single size. Each country establishes its maritime boundaries and coordinates with adjacent countries through treaties to establish the boundaries in common bodies of water (for example, the dispute between East Timor and Australia on where the maritime boundary between them should lay, which determines ownership of oil and gas reserves). "International maritime law permits significant control over maritime borders out to 200 nautical miles and beyond" (http://www.navy.gov.au/spc/semaphore/issue2_2004.html )
2007-08-12 10:23:45 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think having an LLM in a subject you want lecture in would be excellent for job prospects. However I'm not sure about the job prospects in other fields, as the LLM is usually taken by academics, rather than lawyers who wanting to practice in this field. But with all the law students that universities are churning out I think having more qualifications can only be a good thing.
2016-05-20 23:35:49 · answer #5 · answered by jesusa 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Its 12 miles. Unless the stretsh of water is less then 24 miles wide, like the English channel. Then its split in half.
2007-08-12 10:24:44 · answer #6 · answered by futuretopgun101 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It was 3 miles, then to stop duty free sales of tobacco and beer the UK made a request for it to be changed to 12 miles, which made the trip from UK to France 'Territorial waters'. Hence, more money for the tax man.
2007-08-14 02:53:01 · answer #7 · answered by the boss 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
200 nautical miles from shore forward.
2007-08-14 00:41:02 · answer #8 · answered by wilma m 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋