2007-08-12 05:57:40 · 8 answers · asked by ali k 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
= tan ² A + 1
= (sin ² x / cos ² x) + 1
= (sin ² x + cos ² x) / cos ² x
= 1 / cos ² x
= sec ² x
2007-08-12 07:38:05 · answer #1 · answered by Como 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
sec^2 A
2007-08-12 13:06:43 · answer #2 · answered by davidosterberg1 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
( sec A )^2 = 1 + ( tan A )^2
2007-08-12 13:16:05 · answer #3 · answered by donpat 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Hey there!
1+(tan(A))^2 is equal to (sec(A))^2.
Here's the proof.
x^2+y^2=r^2 --> Write the Pythagorean Theorem.
1+(y/x)^2=(r/x)^2 --> Divide both sides of the equation by x^2.
1+(tan(A))^2=(sec(A))^2 Replace y/x with tan(A) and r/x with sec(A).
That was the proof on why 1+(tan(A))^2=(sec(A))^2.
Hope it helps!
2007-08-12 13:31:10 · answer #4 · answered by ? 6 · 0⤊ 2⤋
1 + (tan(A))^2 = (sec(A))^2 is a common trigonometric identity that follows from the Pythagorean trigonometric identity.
2007-08-12 13:05:01 · answer #5 · answered by DavidK93 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
(SecA)^2 - (TanA)^2 = 1
thus (SecA)^2 = 1 + (TanA)^2
therefore 1 + (TanA)^2 = (SecA)^2
2007-08-12 13:05:46 · answer #6 · answered by Rokkky 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1+tan^2(A)=sec^2(A).ANS.
2007-08-12 13:05:57 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
(secA)^2
2007-08-12 13:04:49 · answer #8 · answered by Ramakrishnan N 1 · 1⤊ 0⤋