two years ago when i was 17 i was driving home from school when i rear ended someone (not major) who had stopped all of a sudden to take a left turn. the damages cost $500 to repair my end. i dont think it cost any more on her part. anyway, she had left to take a turn, it was a busy street, and i had too. say there was a police there and he had pursued action or she had complained and a witness was there. now if i agreed to pay her damages as well, would i still go to court and jail? or would i get off? thanks. btw i live in massachusetts
the girl who drove the car in front of me left to take the turn before i could even do anything, so i left too
2007-08-12
05:51:41
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9 answers
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asked by
Thesheet
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in
Politics & Government
➔ Other - Politics & Government
You would have been prosecuted by now, if a policeman had observed you. He would have taken down your license number, and the matter would have been turned over to the DA's office.
Most actions have a Statute of Limitations. This would be a time frame in which an action has to be filed, or it is barred.
If you do have an agreement with the other driver, make sure it is in writing, and the other driver agrees to not press charges, and by signing the agreement you do not admit liability.
2007-08-12 06:02:30
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answer #1
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answered by MenifeeManiac 7
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you would be at fault no matter what if you rear ended her, because that is failure to keep a safe distance, trust me I did that twice.
she could sue you for damages or injuries, but if it has been 2 years she probably won't because I think she is past the time.
I had a lady lie and we never called the cops so I got sued and the insurance had to pay that whore money. I hope something really bad happened to her but that's on a side note. J/K
is she calle the cops an you left that would be a hit and run, but you would have heard something by now if that were the cases.
2007-08-12 13:07:07
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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from 2 yrs ago? are the police even still involved? i doubt they are investigating a 2yo accident.
if you agree to pay her damages what would you be in court for?
and if she left before you could do anything how did you get her info or know the police were involved?
your story doesn't make sense...
2007-08-12 13:03:14
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answer #3
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answered by nataliexoxo 7
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I don't think rear-ending someone with a car is a crime, so I don't think you'd go to jail for that. Unless they could somehow prove you did it on purpose, then you might be prosecuted for deliberately damaging someones property, or attempt to inflict physical damage or something like that.
2007-08-12 13:30:10
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answer #4
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answered by Batfish 4
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If this incident occurred two years ago why are you so concerned about it at this late date? Has something happened recently that causes you to become fearful? If not, I think you're "crying over spilled milk" and there's really nothing to be worried about. If you're still feeling uneasy then please contact an attorney and get this monkey off of your back.
2007-08-12 13:19:01
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answer #5
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answered by Bethany 6
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I don't think so.
If she pressed charges and you paid for the damages and whatever else she was asking for, you most likely would not go to jail =)
It's like people who sue other people -they don't go to jail if they pay whatever the person is asking for.
2007-08-12 13:01:26
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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You hit her, you are at fault. Technically, you should've stayed back far enough that even if she had slammed on her brakes, you could've stopped in time. You won't go to jail, but your insurance will go up. You don't go to jail for a minor accident unless it is a hit-and-run.
2007-08-12 12:59:52
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answer #7
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answered by paintmeblue719 5
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all states are different in n.c would only get a fine good luck
2007-08-12 13:05:30
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answer #8
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answered by goodwitch 3
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maybe
2007-08-12 12:55:49
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answer #9
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answered by naruto uzamaki 1
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