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Is a country an empire if it holds territories that they had to invade and establish their form of government many years ago? As in they invaded over 100 years ago and they still have their form of government on that territory/colony.

2007-08-12 02:35:19 · 5 answers · asked by Q2 2 in Politics & Government Government

To the first response, yes they have control and the countries citizens are considered part of this country. and no its not a island that is a part of the parent country but rather a territory fought for back in the 15-16th century.

2007-08-12 02:49:18 · update #1

khep if what you say is true then why is spain an empire? It has a king not an emperor nor has it ever had an emperor at the peak of its colonization efforts. Same with the Netherlands.

2007-08-12 04:43:34 · update #2

5 answers

A country is an empire if it is ruled by an emperor -- e.g. the Roman state under the Caesars. The word emperor is from imperator, a latin word meaning commander. It became part of the standard titles of the Roman emperors.

The major rulers who did use the title to my memory are: the Byzantine emperors, the Austrian emperors, the Holy Roman Emperors, the Russian tzars, Napoleon, and the English monarchs when the unified India as the Empire of India.

While most Empires were aggressive, it's not a defining aspect.

Edit:

All the European colonial powers were referred to as "empires" but this refers to their colonial ambitions. You asked what is an empire "technically".

Also Spain is correctly referred to as an empire because the Kings of Castille & Leon (especially when they ruled Portugal in a personal union) referred to themselves as "imperator hispaniae". Brazil was also once an empire (during the 19th century) since it was ruled by someone styled emperor.

2007-08-12 03:26:35 · answer #1 · answered by kheperure 4 · 1 0

Generally is was describe as a state that extends dominion over and populations distinct culturally and ethnically from the culture/ethnicity at the center of power.

for Example: North Korea vs South Korea
The Great wall of China.

2007-08-12 12:48:38 · answer #2 · answered by Taja 3 · 0 0

Not necessarily, but usually.

It's one country that controls other countries.

Invasion and military force are one method, but the key is the control -- which could happen through colonization or voluntary confederation rather than invasion.

2007-08-12 09:41:35 · answer #3 · answered by coragryph 7 · 1 0

It's one country that controls other countries
today it is USA.

2007-08-16 07:32:44 · answer #4 · answered by ? 7 · 0 0

Does not mean they have to use force.

2007-08-12 09:43:29 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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