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i was wondering if a contract is void if you mispell a very important word. say for instance i was suipposed to gain controll of a house, but the word house was spelled wrong. would the contract be null or void?

2007-08-11 14:46:33 · 1 answers · asked by maCappy 2 in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

1 answers

No -- it would typically be reformed by the court if the mistake was obvious and the intent of the parties was clear.

But even if it wasn't, that paragraph would at best be treated as ambiguous, and other evidence (starting with the rest of the contract) would be used to clarify the intent.

2007-08-11 14:51:27 · answer #1 · answered by coragryph 7 · 3 0

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