2007-08-10 06:21:57 · 0 answers · asked by Alexander 6 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
That relationship is a direct consequence of the fact that absolute zero, or 0 K, is -273.15 C, and K are defined as equal to degrees C. The value of absolute zero was first approximated on the basis of the linear expansion of gases with temperature increase. Absolute zero is the theoretical point at which the gas would have zero volume. This point was found by extrapolating the expansion curve to temperatures lower than could actually be achieved in the laboratory. Subsequent experiments have used more sophisticated methods.
2007-08-10 06:28:05 · answer #1 · answered by DavidK93 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
It's not that people figured that out but it's more a consequence of the definition of each unit. Celcius is defined as freezing at 0 degrees and boiling at 100 while Kelvin is defined as being 0 at absolute zero (when there is no energy present). They both follow the same scale so based on the fact that 0 is freezing in Celcius absolute zero must be at -273.
2007-08-10 06:27:42 · answer #2 · answered by Matt C 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋
To actually answer your question, Lord Kelvin used the coefficient of thermal expansion for gas to find the "infinitely cold" point to be -273 degrees Celcius. Later experimentation with more careful instruments improved that to the 273.15K we know and love today.
2007-08-10 06:37:05 · answer #3 · answered by bordag 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
0c To K
2016-10-12 22:46:55 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
the conversion of units
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Conversion_of_units#Temperature
2007-08-10 06:26:02 · answer #5 · answered by macgyver 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋