Whilsy I know that "He, She, It" uses Has and "I, You, We, They" uses Have, what about "Everyone, Everybody, The People, etc."?
Does it depend on whether its singular or plural? Sure its not about 1st, 2nd or 3rd person right?
Has and Have is known as ... ?
Thanks people.
2007-08-09
16:37:50
·
7 answers
·
asked by
Julian C
2
in
Education & Reference
➔ Words & Wordplay
You're wrong through and through. A person could properly ask, "Will she have the eggs?", so has doesn't always go exclusively with "He, She and It".
The same would be true of "Everyone and Everybody". "Does everyone have a pencil?" "Everybody has a pencil."
2007-08-09 16:44:13
·
answer #1
·
answered by Anonymous
·
3⤊
1⤋
"People" is plural, so "People have ..." is correct. But if you are talking about "a people", meaning "a nation", that is one group considered singular. For example, "Forcing the natives to westernize was wrong. A people has the right to maintain their culture."
"Everyone", "Everybody" and "Each" are considered singular, so they go with "has". The emphasis is on "one" and "body" here.
In the examples other people have given like "Does everyone have a pencil?", the main verb is "to do", and as you can see, it is in the form for third-person singular. "Have" here is in the unconjugated form, as in the case of other verbs you might use instead ("Do birds _fly_? Does a chicken _fly_?).
2007-08-09 23:55:38
·
answer #2
·
answered by Anonymous
·
1⤊
0⤋
Though "everyone" indicates multiple individuals, it is a singular word, as is "everybody."
"People" is a plural word, like "children." You don't say, "the people has spoken." But if it is the
"She WILL have" is the future perfect tense of "has," making it correct to use "have" in conjuction with "she."
Otherwise, you don't say "She have," but "she had" or "she has."
I have, I had, I will have.
He has, he had, he will have.
They have, they had, they will have.
Much of the form of has/have depend on the tense.
The words "have" and "has" occur in various forms, with many meanings.
As a transitive verb, it is used to mean:
in possession of
in relation to
possessing knowledge of
to hold in the mind
to use or exhibit
to acquire, receive or accept
to suffer from or be subject to
to cause to do something, or be in a certain place
to permit
to perform or carry on
to get the better or, or influence dishonestly
to procreate, or give birth to
to partake of
to be obliged to
As an auxiliary verb, it is used with a past participle to form the present perfect, past perfect, and future perfect tenses indicating completed action. "He has gone, I have begun, they had finished..."
As a noun, it means one enjoying material wealth (the haves vs the have-nots).
It can be a phrasal verb:
have at (attack)
have on (wear)
There are innumerable idioms that include the words have and has.
"have it in for"
"have it made"
"have dibs"
2007-08-10 00:04:15
·
answer #3
·
answered by Bad Kitty! 7
·
0⤊
1⤋
"Everyone" and "everybody" are singular. They refer to *each* person. "The people" is plural, and is similar to "they."
"The people left their gifts in the hall." "Everybody left his or her gift in the hall."
"The people have gifts." "Everyone has a gift."
"Do the people have enough food?" "Does everyone have enough food?" (Here we conjugate "do" rather than "have" -- compare with "Does she have enough food?")
2007-08-10 04:18:10
·
answer #4
·
answered by Surely Funke 6
·
0⤊
0⤋
I beg your pardon, "The people have".
People is a group and a group is singular.
Has/have are present tense verbs.
Had would be past tense.
2007-08-09 23:43:24
·
answer #5
·
answered by ♂ ♫ Timberwolf 7
·
3⤊
1⤋
everyone- has
everybody-has
the people-has
yes it depends if its plural or singular. all three words are singular eventhough they mean more than one person.
2007-08-09 23:40:58
·
answer #6
·
answered by ☼♫☆☺♡♥☺☆♫☼ 4
·
0⤊
4⤋
I'm not an English native speaker, but I believe it is "has"
2007-08-09 23:44:52
·
answer #7
·
answered by Azzie 3
·
0⤊
1⤋