Or can he deem it to risky, and stay on second base?
2007-08-08 12:31:22 · 16 answers · asked by Anonymous in Sports ➔ Baseball
There is no runner heading to second, so there is no force. It is not required to advance.
There are situations where it is unwise to advance, most of which involve infield singles to the left side of the infield, where he would be risking a tag out.
2007-08-08 12:42:53 · answer #1 · answered by patsen29 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Unless there is a runner on first to force him along, the runner on 2nd may choose to remain. Generally, this would occur on an infield single hit to deep short, or possibly on a shallow fly that the runner is unsure will be caught.
2007-08-08 12:44:29 · answer #2 · answered by STEVEN W 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You be taught him to Bob Gibson yet you're forgetting approximately Fernando Valenzuela. Fernando gained his first 8 starts off in 1981 and became 2-0 in alleviation in 1980 so he did no longer win 9 starts off in a row yet his numbers for the period of that element have been even greater advantageous then Grienke. 1980 - 2 wins, 0 losses, 17.2 IP, 0 ER 1981 Apr 9 - win, 9 IP, 0 ER Apr 14 - win, 9 IP, a million ER Apr 18 - win, 9 IP, 0 ER Apr 22 - win, 9 IP, 0 ER Apr 27 - win, 9 IP, 0 ER would 3 - win, 9 IP, a million ER (10 innings) would 8 - win, 9 IP, 0 ER would 14 - win, 9 IP, 2 ER finally dropping 4 to 0 on would 18th. So on the beginning up of his occupation Valenzuela became 10-0 with a nil.36 era, 7 complete video games and 5 shutouts. i'm unsure with regard to the era+ or any of the different stuff yet i'm particular he became close to the suitable. For the record he complete the 1981 season 13-7 with a 2.40 8 era. BQ: Cleveland lost to Grienke on April 13 however the did get 6 hit and 2 walks off him in in basic terms 5 innings.
2016-12-11 14:29:00 · answer #3 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Unless there is a runner on first, the man on 2nd is free to stay there if he chooses. On a base hit, however, he really should be advancing.
2007-08-08 12:38:07 · answer #4 · answered by suspendedagain300 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. The only time a runner has to advance due to being thrown out is when there is a runner at the base before them that has to advance.
2007-08-08 12:40:40 · answer #5 · answered by justkhail 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Runners on 2nd or 3rd are only forced to advance when the preceding bases are occupied by base runners.
So, if there is a runner at 1st, he is forced to advance. But if there is no runner at 1st, he does not have to advance.
2007-08-08 12:38:38 · answer #6 · answered by nickb52286 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
To your first question, no. Unless there was a runner on 1st as the ball was hit. Then he has to advance.
To your second question, yes. But you'll rarely see that happening.
2007-08-08 12:43:54 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
If there is no runner on first, the batter does not have to move. If he tries to advance it is at his own risk.
2007-08-08 12:36:54 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 0⤋
If he doesn't it just might be the last time it will ever happen. I think scoring is the intention. Maybe he should have stayed on first instead of going to second.
2007-08-08 15:47:16 · answer #9 · answered by jonds 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no he doesn't,but if it is a single that he should of scored on he will be benched for the rest of the game or longer depending on how long the manager think his punishment deserves
2007-08-08 13:14:16 · answer #10 · answered by thomasl 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋