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Solve the following equation in the interval [0, 2pi ].

2(cos(t))^2-cos(t)-1=0


t=_______pi

2007-08-08 10:43:24 · 2 answers · asked by Joe B 2 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

2 answers

0 = 2*(cos t)^2 - cos t -1 = (2 * cos t + 1)*(cos t - 1). Therefore, either 2 * cos t + 1 = 0 or cos t - 1 = 0. The former requires that cos t = -1/2; on you specified interval, this occurs at t = 2*pi/3 and t = 4*pi/3. The latter requires that cos t = 1; this occurs at t = 0 and t = 2*pi.

2007-08-08 10:56:53 · answer #1 · answered by Tony 7 · 0 0

cos 1pi=0,
2(cos(1pi)&^2=1,
1-cos(t)=1,
then atlast 1-1=0....
therefore the answer is 1pi,...........within the interval

2007-08-08 17:50:56 · answer #2 · answered by Jason 2 · 0 0

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