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I have read the IRS definition of "first time home buyer", and have a question. I do not own a home or pay a mortgage currently. I rent a house from my dad currently, and am also on the title for that house (used to be my grandfather's house). Does this prevent me from being a "first time home buyer" per the IRS definition of not having a "present interest in a main home for 2 years"?

2007-08-08 05:12:34 · 3 answers · asked by KG70 1 in Business & Finance Renting & Real Estate

3 answers

You are able to withdraw your own contributions to a Roth IRA at any point, penalty free. It is only the portion of your Roth that it earnings that are subject to penalties.

That being said, DON'T DO IT. You can't replace the money later and with the compounding the money will do towards your retirement, it will be much more valuable later. The current real estate market hasn't bottomed out yet and you can use some time to save up a real downpayment.

Good luck.

ps - I think you should contact a tax expert on the second question about being a first time home buyer.

2007-08-08 06:53:56 · answer #1 · answered by Rush is a band 7 · 0 0

If the Roth IRA has been open 5 years and the money grew to become into from contributions (not rollovers), specific. in case you rolled money over to the ROTH, each rollover gets that is very own 5 365 days clock. A divorce does not excuse the requirement which you have not any interest in a substantial domicile for the two years previous to the withdrawal.

2016-10-19 10:17:34 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

You should consult with a tax advisor. I thought I had read somewhere that a first time buyer could withdrawn money without penalty. But check with a professional to be sure.

2007-08-08 05:22:31 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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