I have read the IRS definition of "first time home buyer", and have a question. I do not own a home or pay a mortgage currently. I rent a house from my dad currently, and am also on the title for that house (used to be my grandfather's house). Does this prevent me from being a "first time home buyer" per the IRS definition of not having a "present interest in a main home for 2 years"?
2007-08-08
05:12:34
·
3 answers
·
asked by
KG70
1
in
Business & Finance
➔ Renting & Real Estate