2007-08-07 22:30:10 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
Well, you must have noticed some of the questions/statements that I have read/answered here in the History category lately too. I would not go so far as to say the developed countries "owe their wealth" to the exploitation of other nationalities, but at one time in history it did play a significant role, blah, blah...
*Gosh, Packa - you have moved into the History category!
I know the Taiwan category gets rather dull, doesn't it? It seems to be about the same few (myself included) answering the majority of questions and very few of us are even from Taiwan! I've seen enough of Ajeet's, Matt of Asia's or Jeff L's answers to make me quickly move into other categories too.
2007-08-08 02:56:15 · answer #1 · answered by WMD 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, a pig part of their wealth is the fact that the corruption is not so bad, the majority of budgets set aside for industry and the people actually go to those places instead of some dictators palace, wardrobe etc.
2007-08-08 05:37:06 · answer #2 · answered by Tatsin 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Usually when a nation receives its independence the ownership of property remains with the original owners,
Many countries either immediately upon independence or sometimes later nationalize the property which means taking it away from the original owners
2007-08-08 05:34:45 · answer #3 · answered by DrIG 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
We owe ours to digging bloody big holes in the ground and taking what we can get out of it.
2007-08-08 06:05:38 · answer #4 · answered by molly 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes that is for sure
2007-08-08 05:37:42 · answer #5 · answered by varad 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋