2007-08-07 19:36:15 · 4 answers · asked by The Knowledge Server 1 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
Source: Enasics
2007-08-07 19:36:40 · update #1
What a freaking joke!
The website reads like the subjects were written by a random word generator, and cut-and-pasted into the same statements and questions on page after mind-numbing page.
If there is any unity at all in response, it will be a unity of opinion against Enasics, whatever that is. Quite frankly, a couple of stoned sophomoric dweebs can do better after just thinking about a Phil-101 course.
Don't bother trying to dig beneath the surface. There's nothing but more surface down there.
2007-08-08 08:46:32 · answer #1 · answered by Grey Raven 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The members of unity kind differ as individuals do, according to what is. What is is. There is a nothing between these two this this and these two this this. Nothing is the integral for everything identifiable, between a nothing is a something, between a nothing is a something, between a nothing is a something, repetition infinity for next nothing for a something. Something differs from something for other something; what is is.
2007-08-08 20:15:24 · answer #2 · answered by Psyengine 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
unity is defined as "all by itself" so nothing differs from unity
2007-08-09 06:13:32 · answer #3 · answered by david j 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I disagree wholeheartedly.
Unity differs from EVERYTHING.
2007-08-08 02:39:33 · answer #4 · answered by eric54_20 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋