2007-08-07 18:18:33 · 6 answers · asked by Francois de Tilly 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Other - Science
what i mean is that it can probably proove that all finite matter basically is infinite in itself and so likewise the universe is equivalent to its proponents does this make sense?
2007-08-07 18:47:55 · update #1
No you are confusing two concepts: a number and a range of numbers (in other words, an interval). Between the numbers 0 and 4 (this is a range of numbers), there are infinitely many different numbers. But the number 4 is exactly 1 number.
If you have 4 apples, you have exactly 4 apples. But you could also say you have at least 3.14159 apples (this is a range. You aren't saying you have 3.14159 apples; you are saying you have *at least* 3.14159 apples) but of course this is ambiguous because now there are infinite number of possibilities.
2007-08-07 19:22:19 · answer #1 · answered by Someone Angry 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Dont lose your head. 4 is exactly the number you get adding up all your limbs and thats it unless you are handicapped. there are infinite number of fractions because 4 can be divided in to as many small pieces as u like. take an apple and cut it in half and ten cut it again and agin and again and again. now you have infinite fractions with numerator 1. ie. 1/2, 1/4, 1/8, 1/16, 1/32, .............
so dont get mixed up. i think a 5th standard student will explain it better.
2007-08-08 03:42:36 · answer #2 · answered by newtonian 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
4 is a finite number because it cannot be anything else, just 4. The reason there are infinite fractions between 0 and 4 (if I understand your question) is because you can divide 4 by 1, 2, 3, and all the partial numbers (like 1.5, 1.3432823, ANYTHING) in between.
2007-08-08 01:28:40 · answer #3 · answered by FacePunch 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
4 is a counting number, an integer and a finite number.
Decimals and fractions below 4 could be infinite because of many choices of denominators, numerators, and whole numbers (Like 1/585645465423, 7986/546134850, 3.154687945654, etc.).
2007-08-08 01:34:24 · answer #4 · answered by jon_erik_3745 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It has an infinite number of potential parts, but is finite in length.
That is the paradox of many things: they can be finite and infinite at the same time, but not in the same way.
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2007-08-08 05:13:12 · answer #5 · answered by canx_mp058 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Your statement lacks logic. 4 is integral, which has nothing to do with fractions.
2007-08-08 01:23:12 · answer #6 · answered by cattbarf 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋