I'm writing an article on the incredibly complicated and involved issue of abortion and I'm trying to find more info regarding my question. Any help is appreciated!
2007-08-07 14:58:43 · 4 answers · asked by Pathofreason.com 5 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
The pro-choice movement as a whole doesn't take a position on that issue -- because it's irrelevant to the legal argument they are making.
Pro-choice is about WHO gets to make the definition of "personhood" and WHO gets to make the decisions regarding reproductive issues.
It's either the govt defining it for everyone, or the individual making the decisions and defining it for themself.
So, there is no single definition for the entire pro-choice movement -- that's their whole point -- it's an individual decision.
2007-08-07 19:30:45 · answer #1 · answered by coragryph 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Personhood exists according to The Constitution (14th Amendment)...."Section. 1. All persons born or naturalized in the United States and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and of the State wherein they reside."
All states issue a "birth" certificate, not a "fertilization" certificate.
All life insurance policies state that coverage begins at birth.
In short, "personhood" begins at birth.
2007-08-07 22:06:42 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
You'll have to ask Locke, Kant and Hegel. Considering "personhood" is an economic theory, I would guess that Hegel would say an unborn fetus has no personhood rights in a property sense.
2007-08-07 23:38:10 · answer #3 · answered by Jason R 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I'm sorry what is "personhood"?
2007-08-07 22:02:26 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋