2007-08-07 12:56:01 · 7 answers · asked by TeH PwNaGe 1 in Social Science ➔ Gender Studies
Where are you referring to?
2007-08-07 12:59:51 · answer #1 · answered by Hot Coco Puff 7 · 9⤊ 1⤋
women
2007-08-07 20:01:19 · answer #2 · answered by Gardner? 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
As a question in pure logic, there would be identically the same number.
For women=women as A=A - being a self identity between them, they would be precisely equal.
.
2007-08-07 20:29:28 · answer #3 · answered by canx_mp058 4 · 2⤊ 2⤋
Sometimes, there are more women.
2007-08-08 02:46:06 · answer #4 · answered by edith clarke 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
hmmm.....More Women or more WOMEN?that is a hars question?UMMMMMM.......MAN!!!I DIDN'T STUDY FOR THIS TEST!!!!!!Can you give me a hint?NO?Well I'm going to take a leap and say,drum roll please!THE ANSWER IS ..........
women.
AM I RIGHT?!I THINK I AM!!!YES!!!! I WIN!!!!!!!!WAIT!!!!What do i Win?
2007-08-07 23:47:05 · answer #5 · answered by noproblameo 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The REAL question, is, "Are there less men or less men?"
2007-08-07 20:07:46 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 2⤋
i know i know!! pick me, pick me!
2007-08-07 22:35:38 · answer #7 · answered by Minerva 5 · 1⤊ 1⤋