English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

If a batter hits a grounder to shortstop, but the shortstop bobbles the ball, the batter makes first, is that considered a hit since he did make it to first? Example:Yesterday the Cardinals had 10 straight hits. I believe Braden Looper hit a bunt, pitcher had it but bobbled it, Looper makes it to first and its considered a hit according to the score card. Wouldn't that be an error? Or does it count as an error and a hit whenever there's an error whether it be a pop fly or grounder? Sounds confusing but I'm confused.

2007-08-07 09:46:28 · 13 answers · asked by Anonymous in Sports Baseball

13 answers

It becomes the judgement of the official scorekeeper, as to whether it was fielded cleanly enough and easily enough to where the pitcher should have been able to make an out anywhere. I didn't happen to see the play, but the scorekeepers are generally correct. However, the play can always be reviewed later, and changed to an error.

2007-08-07 09:49:53 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

This tends to be judgmental. I did not see the play but I did notice that St. Louis was playing at home. Usually home team scorekeepers will give the benefit of the doubt to their players.
Many times if you see a SS can't cleanly field a ball in the hole behind 3B its a hit not an error, this is because even with a clean field it has to be an amazing throw to get the runner out. Many would argue that a bobble is an automatic error if an out is not made, however this is definitely not the case. The scorekeepers have the right to call the play a hit if the runner has a solid chance of being safe whether the ball is bobbled or not. That is why in the statement above I noted that the ball is in the hole behind 3rd base. If its hit directly at the SS, then its most likely an error.

This is a similar case. The score keeper is saying that the bunt was good enough that Looper would have been safe even if it weren't bobbled. They think is was perfectly placed and the bobble was null. This could easily be disputed, but as I said I didn't see it so I have no comment. Usually the scorekeepers get it right, but they do indeed make mistakes.

Hope this helps.

2007-08-07 16:54:04 · answer #2 · answered by JimBo 5 · 0 0

it is not considered a hit if the shortstop bobbles the ball and should have made the play, if he touched that ball it's a error in the majors, they must have made a mistake on the score card yesterday because if the pitcher bobled the ball then that was a error, anytime the player makes contact with the ball then misses its a error now if they just don't touch it , it is considered a hit. Now say theres a man on first and the batter hits it to 3rd gets the guy out at 2nd and the batter is safe on first, that is not a hit either that is a fielder's choice and goes against a hitter's average, a walk is like not being up (as far as your average, stay's the same, doesn't help or hurt), Hope this helped you

2007-08-07 17:08:34 · answer #3 · answered by kakylale 3 · 0 0

They ruled Looper's bunt to be a hit, which is why the streak continued. Had the scorer ruled it an error, then no, it wouldn't have been considered a hit and the hit streak would have been over. This was more a question about the scoring decision than the difference between a hit and an error.

I believe the scorer ruled that the pitcher made a reasonable play on the ball, and that Looper would have been safe regardless of the bobble.

2007-08-07 16:50:57 · answer #4 · answered by Craig S 7 · 0 0

Pitchers are usually given the benefit of doubt. They are in such a position after pitching the ball that it is unreasonable to give the pitcher an error on the play. The scorer also takes into consideration whether the batter would have made it to first even if the ball had been handled cleanly.

2007-08-07 16:58:34 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

an error is charged to a fielder when he fails to make an out that was possible to be made. If he would not have been able to make the out regardless of the bobble it is a hit, however if he had not bobbled the ball and would have been able to make the out, but did bobble the ball and failed to make the out he gets charged with an error. Also if a ball drops in the outfield and the runner is safe at first, but takes second because the outfielder bobbled the ball, an error is charged because if the fielder had not bobbled the ball and the runner took second he would have been able to get the runner out at second.

2007-08-07 16:56:41 · answer #6 · answered by yankeefan 1 · 0 0

It is only considered an error if the fielder in question would usually make the play. If it is a tough play to make it will usually be called a hit even if the ball is bobbled.

2007-08-07 16:50:20 · answer #7 · answered by Charlie S 1 · 1 0

The play under normal circumstances could not have been made by the pitcher in that instance so it is ruled a hit.
If in the judgement of the official scorrer deems the play normal or rutine and you do not make the play it is an error.

2007-08-07 16:52:25 · answer #8 · answered by rhuzzy 4 · 0 0

if he gets to first and they dont get him from a bobbled ball, it can be an error but its decided by the official scorer ultimately, and the official scorer can chnage his mind so the hit streak could be taken away after review. teh way i think it happend yesterday was that he thought the runner wouldve made it there

2007-08-07 16:55:04 · answer #9 · answered by . . . . . 3 · 0 0

that should have been an error. normally they are errors but if the guy has great speed and it was a tough play, the scorers normally rule that a hit

2007-08-07 16:49:13 · answer #10 · answered by strikerbrc 1 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers