2007-08-07 07:47:50 · 10 answers · asked by fmontes92 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
No, the domain would be all real numbers. The domain is the set of all values of x for which the function is defined. For example, the domain of 1/x is all real numbers except for zero, because 1/0 is undefined. There are no values of x for which x - 1 is undefined, so the domain will simply be all real numbers.
2007-08-07 07:51:33 · answer #1 · answered by DavidK93 7 · 3⤊ 1⤋
Not at all. A domain is a set of numbers within which the input values of the function are valid. x=y+1 is not a set of numbers - it is an equation. In simpler, but less accurate, terms a domain is all the possible x values (input).
From there we can see that x=y+1 does not in any way show which x values are possible. It is simply a function which shows which pairs of points match; it is a restatement of the original function y=x-1.
To find the domain of a function, begin with assuming that "All Real Numbers" are valid values of x, then ask yourself: 1) On the graph of the function, are there any holes/ asymptotes? 2) Are there any values of x which make the inside of a radical (squareroot) negative? 3) Are there any values of x which make the denominator of a fraction 0?
These are the situations that are most commonly encountered in middle/high school mathematics. If any of the questions are answered with a YES, exclude those from the domain.
In this case, the resounding and obvious answer to all the questions is NO. Therefore any value of x is valid, anything from negative infinity to infinity will return a real y value. The domain is "All Real Numbers".
2007-08-07 08:01:49 · answer #2 · answered by John H 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
the domain is the set of possible values for x.
(the range is the set of possible values for y.)
in this case, x can be anything at all. the domain is infinite.
here's an example of a non-infinite domain:
x+3 > 6
in that case, x can only be greater than 3, because 3 or below would make that statement false.
2007-08-07 07:53:22 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 0⤋
No. the domain is R, the set of real numbers, because every x in R is valid for that operation.
2007-08-07 08:04:35 · answer #4 · answered by Amit Y 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I assume so
x= domain & y = range
=> x=y+1
2007-08-07 07:52:04 · answer #5 · answered by harry m 6 · 0⤊ 2⤋
No. In this case domain is every number:)
For example if y=(x-b)/(x-a) domain is x€(-infinity,a)U(a,+infinity), every number but no a....:s...Because in case x is a, y would be undefined...?
2007-08-07 07:55:48 · answer #6 · answered by ZK 1 · 1⤊ 0⤋
{(x,y): |y| = x, and x <= 4, x,y are integers} is a relation between 2 numbers, x and y. for this reason, area of the relation is, conventionally, the set of values defined for x. as a effect, the set of values defined for x are integers under or equivalent to 4, that's {x: x<=4, and x is an integer} = {4,3,2,a million,0,-a million,-2,-3,...}. to boot this style of the relation is surely the values of the area, that's {4,3,2,a million,0,a million,2,3,...} = {0,a million,2,3,4,...} = the set of non-unfavourable integers
2016-10-14 07:54:22 · answer #7 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
isn't domain a concept involving things like the set of all integers, or all real numbers or all rational numbers?
2007-08-07 07:59:16 · answer #8 · answered by trogwolf 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
No. y is a function. x is a variable.
x can be take any real value.
y domain is (-infinity , +infinity)
2007-08-07 08:01:41 · answer #9 · answered by iyiogrenci 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No. Its the staight line y = x - 1.
When y = 0; x = 1
When x = 0; y = -1
2007-08-07 07:52:58 · answer #10 · answered by robertonereo 4 · 0⤊ 3⤋