English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

she hasn't been with anyone else and he goes and gets checked and everything is clear, what explanations can there be (besides cheating) is this possible?

2007-08-07 02:13:52 · 11 answers · asked by beba 1 in Pregnancy & Parenting Pregnancy

Thanks you all have great answers.

2007-08-07 02:22:18 · update #1

11 answers

It's not always 100%, one little swimmer could have gotten through. I would still have a DNA test done once the baby is born to make sure she didn't cheat. You never know with some people, even women have been known to lie.

If it is his, then look at it as something meant to be.

2007-08-07 02:23:13 · answer #1 · answered by asldfkjdfj 5 · 1 1

Vasectomies are not foolproof, just as a woman having her tubes tied is not foolproof either. It's not common, but people do get pregnant after a vasectomy. The only way to know for sure what happened is to have the baby DNA tested at birth.

2007-08-07 09:23:40 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Maybe he didn’t get the check done, or you got raped while you was drunk. Are you sure you are really pregnant?

I guess the only other unlikely possibility is something like this:

1.A female friend, of his, had sex with another man, and had his sperm inside her.
2.Your boyfriend had sex with her, something like within 12 hours of her having sex with the other man.
3.Your boyfriend had sex with you only hours later, having not washed himself.

Ok, far fetched, and propububly not possible, but this is about all I can think of.

Get an abortion.

The only other thing you can do, is wait for the baby to be born and have a DNA check done.

I had a vasectomy, and I still use condoms. I don't take chances.

Good luck, and post more info

2007-08-07 10:05:02 · answer #3 · answered by Marvin 7 · 1 2

2 years ago with a negative sperm count on exam then and now makes it a highly unlikely possibility but stranger things have happened I guess. If the vasectomy hadn't been so long ago and if the doctor says he has a negative sperm count...my next concern then would be that it's not a true pregnancy but perhaps some other underlying condition that can cause a positive pregnancy test in her. She should get a sonogram to confirm

2007-08-07 09:20:11 · answer #4 · answered by Chasn 3 · 1 1

Yes, the surgeries are not always 100% effective. The man may have some swimmers that just got past the road block...A simple DNA test on the baby can confirm paternity.

Also, women who have had a partial hysterectomy can also get pregnant. My own mother had this very thing happen to her- she was also 42- and she did in fact get pregnant- even though they said it was medically "impossible". They meant "unlikely". Sadly, the part that was impossible was carrying the baby to term, and she miscarried. But few things are 100%- even medically speaking.

2007-08-07 09:18:48 · answer #5 · answered by quirky 5 · 1 1

"Vasectomy is the most effective long-term contraceptive method.

Early failure rates of vasectomy are below 1%, but the effectiveness of the operation and rates of complications vary with the level of experience of the surgeon performing the operation and the surgical technique used.

Although late failure (caused by recanalization of the vasa deferentia) is very rare, it has been documented"
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vasectomy#Effectiveness

"How Well It Works

Vasectomy is a very effective (99.85%) birth control method. Only 1 to 2 women out of 1,000 will have an unplanned pregnancy in the first year after their partners have had a vasectomy.2"
http://www.bchealthguide.org/kbase/topic/detail/surgical/hw7265/detail.htm

Among the 540 eligible women at risk for pregnancy, there were 6 pregnancies occurring from 6 to 72 weeks after vasectomy. The cumulative probability of failure per 1,000 procedures (95% confidence interval) was 9.4 (1.2, 17.5) 1 year after vasectomy and 11.3 (2.3, 20.3) at years 2, 3, and 5.
http://www.greenjournal.org/cgi/content/full/103/5/848

"In one study, as many as 45 percent of patients did not seek follow-up for semen analysis.8 True early failure, defined as the presence of motile spermatozoa in the ejaculate four months after surgery,9 is usually attributed to technical error or to early recanalization of the vas. Early failure occurs in about one out of 300 vasectomies.10 Late recanalization is thought to be rare, although in one study, the rate of recanalization was 0.6 percent one year after vasectomy.10"
http://www.aafp.org/afp/990700ap/137.html

2007-08-07 09:33:30 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

cheating or insemination, or someone gave a knock out drug and a rape occurred.

With the newer vasectomies, they cut and burn(or double clip) the ends of the vas deferens(sp?). After a few years, the failure rate is practically zero. Most failures happen in the first year. Later failures will have a semen sample with sperm present.

Not saying it isn't possible, but highly unlikely if no swimmers were in the sample.

Looks like a DNA test is in the works, even if just to put his mind to rest.

2007-08-07 09:18:48 · answer #7 · answered by Stephanie C 4 · 0 3

Vasectomies are not 100% but they are damn close. I think that you should give her the benefit of the doubt - if you love her - and be there for her. When the baby is born, get a DNA test.

Are you positive that she is pregnant?

2007-08-07 09:21:08 · answer #8 · answered by cwrayvoa 3 · 0 1

Yes its possible. Vasectomy's still have a percent error, as a few sperm can find their way through the scar tissue. This fluke occurrence is more likely the closer to the vasectomy you get, as the scar tissue that blocks the sperm takes time to grow.

2007-08-07 09:19:37 · answer #9 · answered by amosunknown 7 · 1 1

She did the dirty, unless she's having a baby Jesus (because it would have to be a miracle). Sorry to be so blunt but sometimes that's the only way someone will get it.

2007-08-07 09:19:20 · answer #10 · answered by lil L 1 · 0 5

fedest.com, questions and answers