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and if so, why? isn't that taxation without representation?

2007-08-06 17:30:26 · 11 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government Government

11 answers

The District of Columbia and the city of Washington are governed by a single municipal government, and for most practical purposes, are considered to be the same entity. This has not always been the case. Until 1871, when Georgetown ceased to be a separate city, there were multiple jurisdictions within the District.[3] Although there is a municipal government and a mayor, Congress has the supreme authority over the city and district, which results in citizens having less self-governance than residents of the states. The District also does not have voting representation in Congress. Many, especially in the District, consider the lack of voting representation to be unfair, particularly given that District residents are subject to federal income taxes. In FY2004, federal tax collections were $16.9 billion[4] while federal spending in the District was $37.6 billion.[5]

2007-08-06 18:05:23 · answer #1 · answered by little timmie 3 · 1 0

The district has a non-voting member, currently Eleanor Holmes Norton.

And yes, it is taxation without representation. Our license plates say as much.

Originally, DC was not much more than a cluster of federal buildings and government housing (and servants quarters). The issue of voting rights is brought up constantly, and seems to be gaining some traction.

2007-08-07 00:47:20 · answer #2 · answered by buzzfeedbrenny 5 · 2 0

It isn't taxation without representation if the majority of the people are tax consumers and not taxpayers, as is the case in Washington DC. It can hardly be argued that the bureaucracy should have a representative in Congress to expand themselves.

Taxation without representation refers only to circumstances when people who cannot vote are required to pay taxes (not receive them). The most significant case of that is with people under the age of 18 (they still have to pay sales tax and if they choose to work under discriminatory laws, must pay income tax, yet they are denied the ability to vote because of their age). Virtually nobody under the age of 18, so that makes them the largest group that is taxed without being representated in this country.

2007-08-07 03:31:24 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Not entirely. The city has a representative that cannot vote, and that may have changed recently. It was that way because DC is not a state, and according the the system, states had representatives that voted in the Congress.

2007-08-07 00:35:27 · answer #4 · answered by DOOM 7 · 0 0

It's not represented in the Senate. They have one representative in the House.

And, yes, when you think about it, that is Taxation without Representation.

2007-08-07 03:03:36 · answer #5 · answered by Jeremiah 5 · 0 0

That's what the residents have been asking for decades, and their representative Eleanor Holmes Norton brings up a bill practically every year. Yes, they have a representative, but she doesn't get to vote, if I remember correctly.

2007-08-07 00:33:58 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Washington DC is not a State. Although, Washington DC have non voting members in the H of R and Senate.

The founders of the USA never intended anyone to live in Washington DC.

2007-08-07 00:34:03 · answer #7 · answered by calpal2001 4 · 1 2

They have a representative, but no vote. So in essence, they have no representation (power to make laws).

2007-08-07 00:33:33 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

no as that isnt a state. those people are taxed in the state that they live in. the problem is nancy pelosi in a thirst for more liberal votes enacted the non taxpaying territorial vote grant in violation of the us constitution. it was defeated once before and will be so again.

2007-08-07 06:41:48 · answer #9 · answered by koalatcomics 7 · 0 1

Yes.

2007-08-07 00:35:04 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

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