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I saw this question on a myspace survey and i want to know how to answer it.

2007-08-05 22:24:26 · 4 answers · asked by havehope88 1 in Science & Mathematics Physics

4 answers

Deflection cannot be the answer. It means that the force is not fully applied, which doesnt make it an application of unstoppable force. (The unmovable object stopped only the stoppable component in the unstoppable force)

It would prove that one of them is a false claim. My money is on the unstoppable force, because with enough force anything moves!

2007-08-05 22:51:44 · answer #1 · answered by ? 6 · 0 0

If force is unstoppable it will not stop the force will be reduced as
it will colide with the object that is in inertia (resting stage) some of the force of unstoppable force will be utilzed for making unmovable object to move in the direction of force is acting

or if the unmovable object is fixed and cannot be draged the ofter collision with unstoppable force they will stop and produce heat energy so as to release the energy the force is having.

2007-08-06 05:33:29 · answer #2 · answered by himmat 4 · 0 0

A force whether physics call it unstopable or not ,Just does not exist unless a mass is present and interacts either with the substance of space or another mass structure. The nature of Forces indicate that they always come as pairs.
No object is immovable.The Universe and all its object that it contains are all in continual motion.(they all can bemoved).
Hence the question on that space survey is simply moot.

2007-08-06 08:49:06 · answer #3 · answered by goring 6 · 0 0

deflection.

The unstop able does not have to stop and the unmovable does not have to move.

This is more philosophy than physics.

2007-08-06 05:34:01 · answer #4 · answered by upallnite 5 · 0 0

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