The value of the integral is pi/2.
This integral cannot be evaluated using the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus--at least, not in the way one might expect--because (sin x) / x does not have a nice-looking antiderivative.
I found one proof online using the Laplace transform, but I am wondering if there is another way (pehaps using a series, or the Fourier transform, or a contour in the complex plane, or inequalities, or some other technique.)
2007-08-05
09:29:46
·
3 answers
·
asked by
Anonymous
in
Science & Mathematics
➔ Mathematics