Actually slavery existed in all the colonies (perhaps illicitly or perhaps they used the indigenous populations, but it existed everywhere). Looking at what is today the United States the natives were used first but they succumbed to European diseases and tended to flee to Native settlements where they blended in. Africans had been in contact with Europeans for a much longer periods, the were resistant to the diseases, accustomed to hard labor and acclimated to harsh temperatures and so made perfect slaves for the souther plantations of tobacco, indigo and cotton which are labor intensive crops. The inevitability aspect was due to te need for large numbers of hands to work the large land holdings and the sparsity of available labor. The Natives wanted to be left alone for the most part (not excluded from trade but from the lifestyle). In Mexico and the Spanish portions of the modern US the natives were used as labor but under the guise of missions. They were "only learning skills and being educated, no, of course they are not slaves". You can call it what you like but they were slaves just the same.
2007-08-02 15:09:00
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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Not necessarily.
First, the enslavement of Indians occurred in the Caribbean, Central America and South America, very LITTLE of it occurred in North America.
Second, the arrival of the first Dutch ship with african slaves to N America was pure accident. It was the result of a Hurricane that drove the ship north from its intended destination of the Caribbean.
Thirdly, the slave trade was valuable, but if the people purchasing the slaves were not making humongous profits, then they would never have purchased the slaves, making the slave trade, legal or illegal, a non-profit venture, and the traders would then carry other cargoes.
Lastly, less than 10% of all african slaves were brought to N America, the vast majority of the slaves went to the Caribbean, Central America and South America because those places were, at the time, considered more valuable to the mother countries economically than N. America was.
whale
2007-08-03 00:46:50
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answer #2
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answered by WilliamH10 6
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The development of African slavery in the North American colonies is inevitable. When Europeans started moving into America, there were indentured servants serving in the colonial labor force. Once the indentured servants were set free from their contract, there were a great shortage of labor that was soon replaced by the Native American slaves. However, as we all know, Native Americans were not immuned against European diseases and there was another shortage of labor due to the high mortality rate among Native Americans. In order to solve the labor shortage problem, Africans became the solution. Their geographical location andphysical appearances made them a favored target for slaves for the foreigners. Also, constant tribal disputes also made it easy for Foreigners to capture Africans as slaves.
2007-08-02 18:06:59
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answer #3
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answered by Kyubiinaruto 2
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Dutch Slave traders (which I am descendant from) brought slaves (which I am also descendant from) over to The New World as early as the mid 16th century. Jamestown was not founded until 1607 and the pilgrims arrived in... well you know when they arrived (if you don't SHAME, SHAME). So the slave trade was already established before the Anglo-Saxon arrival. So yes it was inevitable.
But was the Civil War inevitable. No! If all men were created equal then the slaves would have been freed in 1776 and there would be no Firing on Fort Sumter in 1861. Of Course Mt Rushmore would look fairly bare with no Lincoln.
2007-08-02 18:06:06
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answer #4
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answered by msuetonius 2
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Yes it was inevitable. The dutch kept bringing slaves to the northeastern part of the United States and the Spanish were bringing slaves to Florida. People saw how profitable selling slaves were and thats why it became a huge thing here.
2007-08-02 14:52:05
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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