Can it be explained that homosexuality is the result of unmet affection?

Question

I'm just wondering!

Answer 1

totally

Answer 2

Unmet by whom?
I'm a gay man who was in a hetero marriage for 10 years and any place I've been in life there have been attractive women who were attracted to me oftentimes to the point of being annoying. So if you mean the old "men are gay just because they can't find women" thing, the answer is no. I've known other gay men who always had women interested in them besides me. And I've known others who were and some who still are, married.
If you mean, say, a gay man's affection for his father not being returned, that's obviously false. My father died when I was four, but I had a grandfather and uncles who were as affectionate as any of the other male father-figures I was familiar with at the time. The majority of straight men would probably tell you that their fathers weren't very affectionate. Fathers who weren't openly affectionate were pretty much the norm when I was growing up- 50s and 60s, and may still be for all I know. I had one straight friend when I was growing up whose father hardly ever talked to him. So if that premise were true, probably 90% of the men of my generation would be gay.
Furthermore, the implication would be that anytime any hetero person had a bad hetero relationship, they would want to turn gay. Obviously, that's not true. And you could ask why wouldn't the inverse of that be true? If a gay person had a bad homosexual relationship, why wouldn't they want to turn straight?

Answer 3

Unmet affection? So you're trying to say that you think being gay is the result of being unable to "get anyone" of the opposite gender, or someone who had a past love that turned them down and forever scarred them into despising the opposite gender romantically and sexually?

I find that very hard to believe. Because 1. I've seen a lot of gay men and women who would have a hard time NOT getting someone.. And 2. Many of the gay people I personally know had no love/attractions before one of the same sex..

Sorry, try again.

Answer 4

No, that doesn't make sense. Not all homosexuals experience unmet affection and not everyone who experiences unmet affection is homosexual either, so there doesn't seem to be a connection.

Answer 5

Can it be explained that heterosexuality is the result of unmet affection?

See, I can ask just as bigoted a question!

Answer 6

No. Homosexuality is not a result of unfulfilled desires or affection as you call it. It is a factor pretty much determined at birth. From personal experience, I can vouch for the fact that I always had affection for and also from men, and it has been met a number of times over.

Answer 7

I am curious as to why anyone would hypothesize this. Based on my experience and assessment of your question and where it is coming from, you may be inclined to believe that homosexuality is still a condition. The APA (American Psychological Association) has removed homosexuality from the DSM-IV since 1973. I would recommend that you look at your own attitude and why you are asking this type of question. Good day!

Answer 8

you mean like a fathers withheld affections?. that could be but I doubt it. my father made it clear in front of company that boys kissing boys is wrong.so i didnt get my goodnight kiss again. but hes english and they are like that. if that idea were true then there would be negative population growth in britain from the 1800's on

you would think that if one had an image of men being cold and aloof, that it would have a negative reaction. a repulsive rather than attractive effect

Answer 9

I don't want affection from men, they have never turned me on. Women have always turned me on. When I'm with my girlfriend believe me my affections are met!

Answer 10

Sorry. My affection is met, just by men instead of women.

It's a whole different ballgame.

Answer 11

I can't say that I think it is true in MY case. And from what I hear, my case is pretty typical.