Specifically, in California.
2007-08-01 17:17:27 · 6 answers · asked by diogenes 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Great answers so far, thanks! A slight caveat: Can you run a law firm in California, (be an owner not a practicing lawyer), if you have your J.D (not passed the bar exam)? Does this answer change if the law firm is formed as an LLP versus a corporation?
2007-08-02 08:07:40 · update #1
Sure. But no lawyer would be allowed to work there.
It's a violation of California Rules of Professional Conduct to work as an attorney under a non-attorney supervisor or owner -- corporate attorneys being a weird semi-exception.
See among others Rules 1-310 and 1-320.
2007-08-01 20:14:42 · answer #1 · answered by coragryph 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Absolutely not, the model rules of professional conduct which have been adopted in Calf govern the conduct of lawyers and specifically state that a non-lawyer cannot own or be a partner in any law firm.
2007-08-01 17:22:05 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
What you like is criminal training. In optimal states, rather a legal professional is permitted to grant criminal training. A paralegal attempting that may well be useful you in this, if no longer under the direct supervision of an legal professional, is violating the regulation, no count number if or no longer they on the on the spot are no longer paid. there's a reason of those regulations. That reason is that incompetence in such concerns could desire to reason irreversible injury. Hiring a paralegal that may well be useful you with a settlement dispute as quickly as you seem being sued is dumber than asking a flight attendant to fly your airplane. a minimum of a few flight attendants do have pilot's licenses.
2016-12-11 07:48:56 · answer #3 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I don't believe so. Its considered against the rules of ethics in Texas--I assume CA has a similar prohibition.
Check on the CA Bar website--it has a link to their rules of ethics.
2007-08-01 17:22:16 · answer #4 · answered by Merissa F 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
nope. non-lawyers can hold NO interest in a law firm.
2007-08-01 17:24:06 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The key-word in your Q is "non-lawyer"- so how could he possibly own a law firm? duh
2007-08-01 17:26:09 · answer #6 · answered by marlynembrindle 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋