Is it bad to categorize a crime as a hate/race crime?
2007-08-01 15:20:49 · 8 answers · asked by princezzjin 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Cultures & Groups ➔ Other - Cultures & Groups
Americans love to toss around the word "equality" and feel that they are all part of one big homogeneous mixture. To say something is a hate crime would be saying that there is a difference between the victim and the offender other than the obvious (such as gender, religion, "race"...). To say something is a hate crime brings back the illusion that we can rightfully be put into seperate categories. Have Americans ever thought of this or are Americans content living in a country full of paradoxes?
2007-08-01 15:34:06 · update #1
I can't fathom why anyone would give $0.02 a thumbs down. I agree with him 100%. Race, gender, sexuality, etc...are only important when it comes down to motive. But as far as the actual crime is concerned, it's ridiculous to classify a crime as a "hate crime". To do as such is to criminalize thoughts, feelings, and opinions. And as disgusting as many people's thoughts, feelings, and opinions may be, they shouldn't be crimes. I could continue but won't bother, as you all should have enough common sense to understand what I'm saying.
2007-08-02 06:17:20 · answer #1 · answered by SINDY 7 · 5⤊ 1⤋
Graffiti on a White person's house using the "N" word is vandalism; using the N word on the Black person's house is a hate/race crime.
The same applies when things like this happen to gays, and other minorities. This system is designed to help protect those of lesser numbers than the majority. It is part of the system to protect any minority so that they have equal rights to the pursuit of happiness and security.
Do you want a description of the crime, or being so PC that now we can't ? I think the categorization is probably a good thing.
2007-08-01 15:30:13 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
the two respondents who reported that basically white defendants would properly be charged with hate crimes are incorrect. a guy or woman of shade is additionally charged with hate crime if the incentive for the crime is bogitry against the guy consistent with race, age, gender, sexual orientation, and so on. yet in many circumstances because of the fact of historic motives and to create the effect of political correctness, district legal experts hardly pursue this highway against defendants who're persons of shade.
2016-11-10 23:33:07 · answer #3 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think they had good intentions. But the idea is rather absurd. If I kick your azz, and take your wallet. well then I can be charged with several crimes as is. If I happen to call you a honkey or a cracker in the process does that some how make the experience of getting your azz kicked and you money stolen that more aggravating.
2007-08-01 15:26:39 · answer #4 · answered by $0.02 4 · 2⤊ 2⤋
If someone commits a crime against someone because of their race or sexual orientation then it's concidered a race and/or hate crime!
Nope!
It's bad that people still actually commit these crimes!
2007-08-01 15:25:37 · answer #5 · answered by FrancoAmerican! 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
well yes because it makes the crime even uglier than what it was as a regular crime
2007-08-01 15:26:57 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
I don't believe so if it's been proven that that's what it is. Could you be more specific?
2007-08-01 15:25:58 · answer #7 · answered by lovely 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
depends
2007-08-01 15:25:28 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋