Prove: 2=1?

Answer 1

I suggest the following "elementary proof": of course You know that
(a - b)(a + b) = a^2 - b^2 /a, b - arbitrary/, so we have:
(a - a)(a + a) = a^2 - a^2;
(a - a)(a + a) = (a - a)a;
a + a = a;
2a = a;
2 = 1, Quod Errat Demonstrandum!!!
The work for You to do is to find the bug in the above "proof".
So, enjoy!

Answer 2

See the link below.

You could also say that 2 cups = 1 pint, although I don't that kind of argument.

Assuming that the numbers are the same unit, which I believe you can, there is no valid way to prove they are equal.

Answer 3

Well, lets take 2 halves of a hamburger. If I eat both halves I will still have eaten 1 whole hamburger. So in this case 2 = 1.
And it was a mighty good burger.

Answer 4

You can "prove" it using complex numbers.

1.) 1/-1 = -1/1

2.) sqrt (1/-1) = sqrt (-1/1)

3.) etc..

Answer 5

http://mcraefamily.com/MathHelp/JokeProofFactoring.htm

Although there is a problem in its logic so it's not really true. Then again math humor is...uh...sparse so you take what you can get.

Answer 6

how can they be equal,they are two different numbers,

Answer 7

http://mathforum.org/dr.math/faq/faq.false.proof.html

Just another reason why math is stupid.....