No. 2^11 - 1 = 2047 = 23 * 89.
2007-07-31 11:36:31
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answer #1
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answered by Dynamic 4
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permit p = 2k+a million, then p^2 = 4(ok^2+ok) + a million. in view that ok^2 + ok is often even p^2 - a million = 8N. in view that p isn't a diverse of three this is of the type p = 3k + a with a = +a million or -a million so as that a^2 = a million. Then p^2 = 9k^2 + 6ak + a^2 so as that p^2 - a million is a diverse of three. in view that 3 and eight are coprime, p^2 - a million is a diverse of three*8 = 24.
2016-12-11 06:26:25
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answer #2
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answered by ? 4
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No- if p=4, 2^4 =16, and 16-1=15, which is not prime
2007-07-31 12:04:51
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answer #3
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answered by Grampedo 7
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2^p - 1 is an example of a Mersenne prime, when it happens to be a prime number.
http://primes.utm.edu/mersenne/
This site shows that it it doesn't work for p=11, 23, 29, 37, among others.
2007-07-31 11:42:44
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answer #4
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answered by Optimizer 3
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Don't listen to "bee." 2^7 is 128, not 64. That example would work because 127 is prime. Looks like "Dynamic" just disproved it though
2007-07-31 11:37:41
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answer #5
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answered by Floyd 2
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yes, it appears to be. A prime number is defined as one who can only be divided by 1 and itself. since 2^p is always divided by 2, substracting 1 greatly reduces the possibility of it not being prime. Also, p being prime further reduces that possibility to 0
2007-07-31 11:33:25
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answer #6
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answered by Shadow 3
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no.
you only need ONE example to prove a statement false :] so since I found one number that proves it wrong, you know that the statement will not always be true. So here we go:
(2^P)-1 when P=7
(2^7)-1
(64)-1
63
63 is NOT prime.
2007-07-31 11:32:36
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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