Why couldn’t France and Great Britain inflict military force on Germany when it took the Sudetenland?

Question

A. France and Great Britain didn’t have the support from the United States.
B. France and Great Britain were not allies.
C. France and Great Britain were struggling financially.
D. The League of Nations did not support France and Great Britain.

Answer 1

I realize this is probably a homework question and I'm not going to respond appropriately, BUT - here goes anyway -
It's not why couldn't - it's why DIDN'T (depression, fear of a second World War right on the heels of the War to End all Wars) and, of course, good old Neville Chamberlain who would've given Hitler his sandbox if he thought it would stop that fanatic.
So - A, C & D? Give it a try.

Answer 2

Although your teacher is probably looking for "C", since most of the industrialized world was going through the depression. When the economic situation is tight, a government has less to spend on discretionary items like waging a war kind of the opposite of the US in Iraq.

However, I personally find all four answers dissatisfactory. The real reason is that neither Great Britain nor France lacked the stomach for the fight. The democracies and especially France were exhausted from World War One and were unwilling at that time to spend additional men, equipment, and treasure to stop the German War machine. Remember British Prime Minister came back from the Munich Conference proclaiming "Peace in our time." Sadly, Nazi Germany had not properly developed its war machine by 1938, so the French and Czech armies could have put more divisions in the field than the German Wehrmarcht. Hitler’s Reich would have fallen like a house of cards had only the France, Great Britain and Czechoslovakia attacked. Millions of live could have been saved.

In my mind, appeasement was the reason to avoid the war not economics. Anyway, I think you should cross out all of the answers and say “E” – none of the above. Call your teacher an inbred moron for teaching revisionist history – this is your big chance.

Pauly

Answer 3

Yes, its C. Both nations were struggling financially and both were weary from World War 1. Neither country had the will to go to war at that point and though appeasement would keep the Germans in check.

Answer 4

C is the correct answer. They COULD have used military force against Germany, but chose not to for economic reasons. It was the middle of the Great Depression, you know? Money was tight and wars are expensive. Of course, all their appeasement got them was a worse war later on, but that was their logic, such as it was, for their inaction prior to 1939.

Answer 5

C) with the Great Depresion, money was tight, and the military of both countries were not ready for war. Chamberlin had to compromise and appease the Germans because they would have lost quickly if they started a war.

Answer 6

properly actual each and every of the international locations met. They agreed that Germany ought to keep the Sudetenland. The Allies strongly wanted peace. Winston Churchill later referred to as this a p*ssy pass.

Answer 7

The answer your looking for is C. Both countries were hard pressed financially and domestic issues needed to be addressed.