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2007-07-31 05:31:49 · 2 answers · asked by orzoff 4 in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

I found the answer myself and AZ is not a No-Fault negligence state:

"Some states are adopting a no fault auto insurance system which requires you to have minimum insurance in the event you're injured. Your insurance company automatically pays for your damages, regardless of who is at fault for the accident. This theoretically keeps insurance costs down and makes it easier to process claims. Currently, no-fault insurance is required in Colorado, Florida, Hawaii, Kansas, Kentucky, Massachusetts. Michigan, Minnesota, New Jersey, New York, North Dakota, Pennsylvania and Utah."

2007-07-31 05:50:59 · update #1

2 answers

I'm not sure what you mean? You're kind of vague. Common law is not the opposite of No-fault, when it comes to legal definitions. Common law refers to laws made on previous cases decided on by judges. The opposite of common law is Statute law. The opposite of No-fault in a divorce proceeding (for example) is Fault meaning to obtain a divorce one party commtted adultry or something and the other party gets benefitted due to the other side's negligence. So if you are asking whether cheating on a spouse in Arizona is taken into account when divorce settlement is concerned, I don't know. In Oregon it is a "No Fault" state so you can cheat and it won't affect the outcome of your divorce.

2007-07-31 05:38:59 · answer #1 · answered by Eisbär 7 · 0 1

There's no such thing as "no-fault negligence".
That's like having "no-death murder".

Negligence, by definition, requires a breach of a duty, and that breach is being at-fault.

So, you must be mixing up the terms, or confusing contributory negligence (no recovery if the plaintiff is any bit at fault) with comparative fault (partial recovery, split by relative fault)..

2007-07-31 12:37:11 · answer #2 · answered by coragryph 7 · 0 1

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