If a man and a woman haven`t lived together for over a year but both are living with a new person of the opposite sex ....what will happen to them when they do finally get divorced? And no they are NOT legally seperated
2007-07-31 04:55:13 · 9 answers · asked by fla.girl 2 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
That issue is different by state. If, by your name suggests, you are from Florida, it doesn't matter. Florida is a No-Fault state, and infidelity is not taken into account on divorce settlements.
2007-07-31 05:03:50 · answer #1 · answered by SubNRG 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It depends on the state/country, since each defines adultery differently. For example, in South Carolina (as of a few years back) a woman could be found to have committed adultery for divorce purposes if it was shown she had the OPPORTUNITY to do so. That's all, just the opportunity.
But adultery for divorce usually only matters when it comes to settlement, or if the couple files for an at-fault divorce based on marital infidelity. In the case above, where both are equally culpable, it wouldn't have any significant impact.
2007-07-31 05:00:43 · answer #2 · answered by coragryph 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
In Georgia your legal separation date is when you no longer live together. Or, if you still live together, it's the last time you had sex. I'm not sure about your state, but it might be something similar.
Why are you concerned? If you are both "committing adultery" then should it really matter? It is up to you and your soon to be ex-wife how you file your divorce. Adultery need not ever be mentioned if so desired...
2007-07-31 05:00:49 · answer #3 · answered by smellyfoot ™ 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If they are married and sleeping with other people, that's the very definition of adultery.
And in some churches, unless the marriage is annulled, then sleeping with other people even after divorce is considered adultery.
2007-07-31 05:05:47 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
This could be a legal question or a moral one. Legally, the adultery will have little to nothing to do with it, since they are both guilty. Morally, yes, it is adultery.
2007-07-31 05:04:21 · answer #5 · answered by mamalissa 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yep, it's adultery. Once they get divorced they will no longer be married and they will be former adulterers. If both are cheating then it is unlikely that it will impact the divorce itself.
2007-07-31 05:04:16 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes it is adultery unless they have a legal divorce.
2007-07-31 05:02:51 · answer #7 · answered by notyou311 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
>> what will happen to them when they do finally get divorced? <<
If this is a matter of mutual acceptance; nothing.
2007-07-31 04:58:56 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
If a married person has sex with some one NOT their spouse, it's adultry!
2007-07-31 05:03:02 · answer #9 · answered by Wounded Duck 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋