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Thanks in advance

2007-07-30 20:55:18 · 4 answers · asked by Oleg V 2 in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

4 answers

In most states it has nothing to do with legal fees. Rather, it has to do with statutory costs that may be - under some circumstances - awarded to a prevailing party.

If the jury verdict contains "no costs" it is most likely that the jury found that the statutory test was not met for awarding the costs.

2007-08-01 17:19:05 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Jury doesn't award the plaintiff any cost to be paid by the defendant.

Usually when they do this, the jury feels the plaintiff's complaint was that strong.

or the defendant didn't really mean to do what they did and thought the plaintiff was being frivolous.

2007-07-31 04:06:28 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

In a civil trial, the winning party may petition to have all court costs (fees, attorney expenses, etc.) paid by the losing party.

The determination of "no costs" is short for "no costs awarded" and means that each party pays their own legal bills.

2007-07-31 07:20:18 · answer #3 · answered by coragryph 7 · 1 0

Any costs of court have already been paid.

2007-07-31 03:58:15 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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