I would think that would be considered libel since he was acquitted in court. Do I think he did it? Heck yes...but I can't go around stating it as fact that he did it. It just doesnt make any sense. Yes, the families are entitled to money, but it seems that Fred Goldman is not only upset that OJ has gotten away scot-free he is using his son's death as a get rich quick scheme. Either way, I just want this stupid thing to end..its been what? 13 years....jeeze
2007-07-30
13:17:14
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5 answers
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asked by
Eduardo the flying squirrel
1
in
Politics & Government
➔ Law & Ethics
Yea, hes liable for the deaths, but its not a conviction. Libel is the defamation of character...if he proclaims his innocence, and the book is changed from IF I did it...to confessions...that is a change of intent. Therefore I think the Goldman's would be liable for defamation of character
2007-07-30
13:27:22 ·
update #1