hi could some one tell me if a medival king had only daughters what happened, how was the next king chosen?

Answer 1

Not all countries would do this the same way. But it would NOT be usual for the kingship to pass to the man the king's daughter marries (unless he already had an independent claim to the throne reckoned by a method like that described below, which might indeed happen if he were, say, a cousin to the king's daughter).

Here is a "typical method", as was (and is!) followed in England: Ordinarily, the throne would pass to the closest male relative, something like this (in THEORY... often much messier --even literally!-- in practice, as those with rival claims might decide it by rival armies...!)

The line of succession would FIRST past through the king's offspring, so if he only had daughters the throne would pass THROUGH (not to) the eldest daughter with a male heir.

If not... if the king had any brothers, it would pass to the oldest brother and his line.

If he had no brothers but a sister(s), the male heir of his oldest sister would be in line.

If there were no suitable heirs available by either of these methods, you would go back one generation in the royal line (that is, to siblings of the king's father, etc)... and if necessary back another. . .

(There are, of course, cases in which, barring a close enough available male heir -- and how close was necessary might vary by time and place-- the DAUGHTER might take the throne as Queen... her husband would NOT ordinarily be "king", but "prince consort" as is currently the case in England. )

If you want more on the methods by which hereditary succession is historically determined in various royal lines in Europe, the following wikipedia articles do a pretty good job (and provide examples):

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Order_of_succession#Salic_Law
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hereditary_succession_models

Answer 2

You have asked what is a very complex question. The defining idea is that of the "Salic" Law a law of the early Franks that stipulated that no land could go to a woman. Wikipedia has this to say:

The so-called Semi-Salic version of succession order stipulates that firstly all male descendance is seen through, including all collateral male lines; but if all agnates become extinct, then the female who is the closest heir (such as a daughter) of the last male holder of the property inherits, and after her, her own male heirs according to the Salic order. In other words, the female closest to the last incumbent is regarded as a male for the purposes of inheritance/succession. This is a pragmatic way of putting order: the female is the closest, thus continuing the most recent incumbent's blood, and not involving any more distant relative than necessary. At that order, the original primogeniture is not followed with regard to the requisite female. She could be a child of a relatively junior branch of the whole dynasty, but still inherits thanks to the longevity of her own branch.

From the Middle Ages, we have one practical system of succession in cognatic male primogeniture, which actually fulfills apparent stipulations of original Salic law: succession is allowed also through female lines, but excludes the females themselves in favor of their sons. For example, a grandfather, without sons, is succeeded by his grandson, a son of his daughter, when the daughter in question is yet alive. Or an uncle, without his own children, is succeeded by his nephew, a son of his sister, when the sister in question is yet alive.

Strictly seen, this fulfills the Salic condition of "no land comes to a woman, but the land comes to the male sex". This can be called a Quasi-Salic system of succession and it should be classified as primogenitural, cognatic, and male.

OK back to me

This law had numerous consequences in the Middle Ages and later including the Carlist Wars of the 1820's, War of the Spanish Succession (1740-48)

There were also two important examples in British History. The first was a little matter called the Hundred Years War when Edward 111 of England claimed the French throne through his mother Isobel The French nobles refused to recognize his claim using the Salic law as Edward was a descendent of a woman and gave the throne to another. the second involves Queen Victoria. Prior to Victoria's accession in 1837 the Rulers of England were also rulers of Hanover in Germany. The Germans refused to recognize Victoria using the Salic law as the base and Britain lost its German possessions from then on.

Answer 3

Usually the next in line would be a brother or uncle. In the Middle Ages it often led to civil war. When the last Saxon king of England died, he left no sons. It led to war between Harold and William the Conqueror, both of whom claimed that the king had left the crown to them.

Answer 4

Usually by the strongest male in line of succession grabbing the throne. Primogeniture didn't always apply even if there was a son, especially if that son was percived to be weak.

Answer 5

They would chose husband for their daughter who they think would make a good king.