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when there is no evidence to show he ever threatened or hurt her.

2007-07-29 14:39:39 · 2 answers · asked by billy brite 6 in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

2 answers

Generally, that would not happen.

Generally, anyone (wife or not) must provide evidence of a threat or intended harm before a restraining order is issued.

However, some states may have special laws that make an exception in the case of pending divorce -- in effect granting a legal presumption of threat from the other spouse.

Laws vary by state/country. Check your local listings.

2007-07-29 14:43:21 · answer #1 · answered by coragryph 7 · 0 0

they would have to have a police report or have proof and take it to court.

2007-07-29 21:52:15 · answer #2 · answered by Ben C 1 · 0 0

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